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HOMI BHABHA PHYSICS

HOMI BHABHA PHYSICS

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HOMI BHABHA PHYSICS

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  1. 11. A force of 10N works on a ball over a distance of 5m. The force is antiparallel to the displacement of the ball. What is the total work done by the force ? (A) -50 J (B) zero (C) 2J (D) 50J Energy is measured in the same units as : (A) Power (B) Force (C) Work (D) None of the above The potential energy is always the same for an object with the same : (A) Velocity (B) Speed (C) Acceleration (D) Position A 150m long train is moving with a uniform velocity of 45 km/h. The time taken by the train to cross a bridge of length 850m is : (A) 56 s (B) 68 s (C) 80 s (D) 92 s A man walks on a straight road from his home to market 2.5 km away with a speed of 5km/h. Finding the market closed, he instantly turns and walks back home with a speed of 7.5 km/h. the average speed of the man over the interval of time 0 to 40 min, is equal to : (A) 5 km/h (B) 25/4 km/h (C) 30/4 km/h (D) 45/8 km/h A particle starts form rest. Its acceleration (a) versus time (t) is as shown in the figure. The maximum speed of the particle will be : B MOTION, FORCE, WORK & ENERGY 1. 12. If force and displacement of particle in the direction of force are doubled. Work would be : (A) Double (B) 4 times (C) Half (D) ¼ times Burning of coal is an example of conversion of : (A) chemical energy into light and heat energy (B) mechanical energy to heat energy (C) heat energy to light energy (D) light energy to heat energy The decrease in the potential energy to a ball of mass 20 kg whigh falls from a height of 50 cm, is (A) 968 J (B) 98J (C) 1980 J (D) None of hese A ball of mass 2kg and another of mass 4 kg are dropped together form a 60 feet tall building. After a fall of 30 feet each towards earth, their respective kinetic energies will be in the ratio of : (A) (B) 1:4 1 : 2 13. 2. 14. 3. 15. 4. : 1 2 (C) 1:2 Which is not a unit of energy ? (A) watt second (C) watt The work is said to be done when : (A) a body moves (B) a force is applied which brings about motion (C) a force is applied but no motion is produced (D) none of these A fast wind can turn the blades of a windmill because it possess : (A) potential energy (B) kinetic energy (C) chemical energy (D) heat energy When we compress a coil spring, we do work on it. The elastic potential energy : (A) increases (B) decreases (C) disappears (D)remains the same What is the work done by gravity on a man standing on a platform ? (A) zero (B) Positive (C) Negative (D) Depends on the particular situation A body at rest can have : (A) speed (B) energy (C) momentum (D) velocity (D) 16. 5. (B) kilo watt hour (D)Joule 6. 100 m/s2 a A t O 11s 7. (A) 110 m/s (C) 550 m/s The angular velocity of the second’s hand of a clock is : (A) 0.105 rad/s (B) 1.105 rad/s (C) 2.102 rad/s (D) 3.120 rad/s A bus is moving eastward. It covers a distance of 200 kilometers in 4 hours, Its velocity is : (A) 50 km/h (B) 20 km/h (C) 40 km/h (D) 60 km/h Mohan takes 20 minutes to cover a distance of 3.2 kilometers due north on a bicycle, his velocity in kilometer/hour : (A) 8.1 (B) 9.6 (C) 1.2 (D) 7.2 Initial velocity of a cyclist was 4 m/s. His acc is 2m/s2, his velocity after 5 seconds is : (A) 12 m/s (B) 10 m/s (C) 14 m/s (D) 8 m/s (B) 55 m/s (D) 660 m/s 17. 8. 18. 9. 19. 10. 20. 1

  2. (A) a (i), b (iii), c (ii), d (iv) (B) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d (ii) (C) a(ii), b(iii), c (i), d (iv) (D) a(iii), b(i), c (iv), d (ii) 21. The initial velocity of a body is 15 m/s. If it is having an acceleration of 10 m/s2, then the velocity of body after 10 seconds from start : (A) 110 m/s (B) 105 m/s (C) 120 m/s (D) 115 m/s Which of the following class of forces is different form others ? (A) Pulling of a cart (B) Stretching of a coiled spring (C) Kicking of a football (D) Electric force The speed of a falling contentiously. This is because : (A) no force acts on it (B) it is very light (C) the air exerts the frictional force (D) the earth attracts it If an object is in a state of equilibrium : (A) it is at rest (B) it is in accelerated motion (C) it is in motion at constant velocity (D) both (A) and (C) If a boat is moving along at constant speed, it may be assumed that : (A) a net force is pushing it forward (B) the sum of only vertical forces is zero (C) the buoyant force is greater than gravity (D) the sum of all forces is zero A moving object can come to rest if it : (A) has a frictional force acting on it (B) has no net force acting on it (C) is completely isolated (D) none of these The necessary force required in Newton to produce a pressure of 50 Newton/meter2 on a rectangle of area 10 square meter will be : (A) 500 (B) 60 (C) 5 (D) 0.2 Four bodies are of m, 2m, 3m, 4m masses. In which body acceleration produced will be maximum on applying equal amount of force an each one of them. (A) m (B)2m (C) 3m (D) 4m 20 Joules work is done in displacing a body by 4 meter in the direction of the force. The value of the force applied in Newton is : (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 24 (D) 80 Some physical quantities and their units are given in column I and II respectively. Column-I Column-II 31. Light object (mass m1 and velocity v1) and heavy object (mass m2 and velocity v2) posses equal kinetic energy, then correct statement is : (A) m1v1<m2v2 (B) m1v1>m2v2 (C) m1v1 = m2v2 (D) m1v2 = m2v1 22. 32. 23. body increases A car of mass 1000 kg is supported on piston of tube B for repairs. It is connected to tube A which is of 1/5th diameter of tube B. Tubes are full of oil. Force F applied on piston of A to support the car is : 24. 25. (A) 200 kg wt (C) 40 kg wt (B) 200 newton (D) 40 newton 26. 33. Which of the following statements is true for a planet ? (A) Its mass increases with increasing distance form the sum. (B) Its radius increases with increasing distance form the sum. (C) Its period of revolution increases with increasing distance form the sum. (D) Its period of rotaion about its own axis increases with increasing distance form the sum. 27. 28. 34. 29. Consider the following motions. (a) Rotation of the earth about its axis (b) Revolution of the moon around the earth (c) Motion of a mass suspended from a spring when it is pulled down slightly and then released. (d) Motion of a string of a sitar when plucked. Which of the following pairs of motion represents an oscillatory motion ? (A) A,C (B) A,B (C) B, D (D) C, D 30. kg ´ m (a) Momentum (i) Sec . (b) Pressure (c) Work (ii) Newton × meter (iii) Newton/m2 newton´ m (d) Power (iv) Sec . 2

  3. (A) Radiation (C) Conduction Which is the fastest method of transfer of heat ? (A) Radiation (B) Convection (C) All are equally fast (D) All are equally fast conduction cannot takes place in : (A) copper (C) aluminium A graph is plotted taking 0C along the Y-axis and 0F along the X-axis. It is a/an : (A) straight line (B) parabofa (C) ellipse (D) circle When two object are in thermal contact, the heat is transferred by : (A) conduction (B) convection (C) radiation (D) none of these Two bodies are in thermal equilibrium if they have same : (A) temperature (B) amount of heat (C) specific heat (D) thermal capacity 2000 J of energy is needed to heat 1 kg of paraffin through 10C. How much energy is needed to heat 10 kg of paraffin through 20C ? (A) 4000 J (B) 10.000 J (C) 20,000 J (D) 40,000 J In hot water bottles, water is used because : (A) Its specific heat is low (B) Its specific heat is high (C) It is cheap (D) It is easily available Heat capacity equal to : (A) mass × specific heat capacity (B) mass/specific heat capacity (C) specific heat capacity/mass (D) none of these When air is saturated, it cannot hold : (A) more water vapour (B) more air (C) more carbon dioxide (D) more oxygen The ratio between (A) 1 : 2: 3 (B) 3 : 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 3 : 2 (D) 2 : 1 : 3 A piece of ice at 00C is added to vessel containing water at 00C, then : (A) all of the ice will melt (B) same ice will melt (C) no ice will melt (D) the temperature will decrease further Figure shows the temperature variation when heat is added continuously to a specimen of ice (1g) at -200C. Specific heat of ice is 0.53 cal/g 0C. Mark the correct options according to terms in column I and column II : (B) Convection (D) All of these HEAT 13. 1. The normal temperature of human body is : (A) 370C (C) 350C At what temperature, Fahrenheit and degree Celsius scale measure same temperature : (A) -400 (C) 1000 Two holes of unequal diameters d1 and d2 (d1 > d2) are made in a metal sheet. If the sheet is heated : (A) Both d1 and d2 will decrease (B) Both d1 and d2 will increase (C) d1 will increase d2 will decrease (D) d1 will decrease, d2 will increase The saturated vapour pressure s water at 1000C is : (A) 750 mm of Hg (B) 760 mm of Hg (C) 76 mm of Hg (D) 7.6 mm of Hg Two identical rectangular strips one of copper and other of steel are riveted together to form a bimetallic strip. ( this strip will : (A) remains straight (B) bend with copper on convex side (C) bend with steel on convex side (D) get twisted One gram of ice at 00C is added to 5 grams of water at 100C. It the latent heat of ice be 80 cal/gm, then the final temperature of the mixture is : (A) 50C (B) 00C (C) -50C (D) none of the above If water at 00C, kept in a container with an open top, is placed in a large evacuated chamber : (A) all the water will vaporize (B) all the water will freeze (C) part of the water will vaporize and the rest will freeze (D) ice, water and water vapour will be formed and reach equilibrium at the triple point If 40 g of water at 1000C is mixed with 150 g of water and mixture temperature becomes 500C. Find initial temperature of cold water: (A) 36.660C (B)320C (C)250C (D) 46.660C Absolute zero corresponds to : (A) -273 K (B) -2730C (C) 2730 F (D) None of these Unit of relative humidity is : (A) kg/m (B) g/cm (C) kg/wt (D) none of these We feel most comfortable at relative humidity : (A) <50% (B) 50% (C) > 50% (D) 100% (B) 380C (D) 250C 14. 2. (B) iron (D) vacuum (B) 400 (D) 00 15. 3. 16. 4. 17. 5. a > a 18. ( ) . On heating, copper steel 19. 6. 20. 7. 21. g b a , and 22. is : 8. 23. 9. 24. 10. 11. 12. In which method of transfer of heat, particle of medium actually moves ? 3

  4. Column I (i) Q1 (cal) (ii) Q2 (cal) (iii) Q3 (cal) (iv) Q4 (cal) (A) (i) (B) (i) (C) (i) (D) (i) By the effect of heat, a magnet : (A) loses its magnetic property (B) becomes strong magnet (C) becomes temporary magnet (D) none of the above Expansion of a substance is : (A) directly proportional to rise in the temperature (B) inversely proportional to rise in the temperature (C) independent of rise in temperature (D) can not say Per 0C is unit of : (A) (B) (C) (D) all of these Clock’s pendulum is made of invar because : (A) It is light in weight (B) It is easily available (C) Its coefficient of linear expansion is low (D) It is cheaply available On raising the temperature, the mercury in a thermometer rises. This happens because : (A) glass is a poor conductor of heat (B) glass does not expand on heating (C) mercury expands much more than glass (D) mercury is a good conductor of heat A test tube contains water with a piece of ice floating on the water surface . When the test tube is heated from below, ice melts rapidly. However, if the ice piece is sunk below the column of water by tying it to a weight and water is heated from above, ice does not melt even though water at the top starts boiling. From this observation we conclude that : (A) Water is a good conductor as well as a bad convector of heat (B) Water is a bad conductor as well as a bad convector of heat (C) Water is a good conductor but a bad convector of heat (D) Water is a bad conductor but a good convector of heat The specific heat of four bodies P, equal masses are 0.1, 0.2, 0.3, 0.4 kilo calorie/kg ×0C respectively. Temperature of which body will increase highest on giving equal amount of heat ? (A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S On giving 100 kilo calorie heat to 5 kg. of water at 200C, the temperature of water will be : (A) 250C (B) 300C (C) 400C (D) 450C On a thermometer the freezing point of water is at 20 degree and boiling point is at 1600 degrees. If the temperature of a liquid on Celsius scale is 600 C, then the temperature of the same liquid recorded by this thermometer in degrees will be : (A) 84 (B) 96 (C) 104 (D) 120 At what temperature, the density on pure water is maximum ? (A) 00C (B) -400C (C) 40C (D) 20C The body temperature of a person is 990 F then what is equivalent temperature in Celsius ? (A) 114.60 C (B) 72.80 C (C) 37.20C (D) 36.60 C How much heat is required to raise the temperature of 15 kg of water by 150 C ? (A) 22.5 kilo calorie (B) 225 Joule (C) 225 kilo calorie (D) 30 kilo calorie A beaker is completely filled with water at 40 C. When it is cooled further to 10 C, then : (A) the level of water decreases (B) the water overflows (C) the beaker shatters (D) nothing happens Column II (p) 80 (q) 540 (r) 100 (s) 10.6 p, (iii) p, (iii) q, (iii) p (ii) ® 31. Q,R,S of ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® s (ii) r (ii) s (ii) r, (iv) r, (iv) r, (iv) r, (iv) ® q q p q s, (iii) 25. 32. 33. 26. 27. a g b 34. 28. 35. 29. 36. 30. 37. 4

  5. (C) above 20 kHz (D) no limit 12. SOUND The speed of sound in air at 00C is approximately: (A) 332 ms-1 (B) 350 ms-1 (C) 530 ms-1 (D) 332 kms-1 1. Speed of sound at constant temperature depends on : (A) pressure (B) density of gas (C) above both (D) none of the above 13. A body which produces sound is in the state of : (A) translatory motion (B) rotatory motion (C) vibratory motion (D) rest 14. The shrillness of a musical note depends upon : (A) amplitude (C) frequency 2. (B) loudness (D) quality The characteristic of sound which distinguishes a feeble sound from a louder sound of the same frequency is : (A) pitch (B) amplitude (C) music (D) timbre 15. A pulse is a wave : (A) of long duration (C) both (A) and (B) (B) of short duration (D) none of these 3. 16. Echo is a type of : (A) reflected sound (C) polarised sound A sonar echo takes 4.4s to return from a submarine. If the speed of sound in water is 1500 ms-1, then the distance of submarine from the sonar is : (A) 1500 m (B) 3000 m (C) 3300 m (D) 3600 m (B) refracted sound (D) none of these 4. To hear a distinct echo, the minimum distance of a reflecting surface should be : (A) 11 metres (B) 28 metres (C) 68 metres (D) 340 metres A thunder clap is heard 5.5 second after the lightening flash. The distance of the flash is : (speed of sound in air is 340 m/s) (A) 1780 m (B) 1870 m (C) 300 m (D) 3560 m 17. 18. In which medium sound travels faster ? (A) Solid (C) Gas (B) Liquid (D) None of these 5. The unit of quantity on which pitch of the sound depends is : (A) hertz (B) metre (C) metre/second (D) second 19. 6. A source produces 50crests and 50 troughs in 0.5 s. What is the frequency of the wave ? (A) 100 Hz (B) 150 Hz (C) 50 Hz (D) 125 Hz If a wave complets 24 cycles in 0.8s, thenthe frequency of the wave is : (A) 30 Hz (B) 8 Hz (C) 24 Hz (D) 12 Hz 20. 21. 7. One hertz is equivalent to : (A) one cycle per second (B) one second (C) one metre per second (D) one second per metre A Sonar waves cannot pass through : (A) a solid liquid mixture (B) a liquid (C) an ideal gas (D) a perfect vacuum 8. A sound wave travels from east to west in which direction do the particles of air move ? (A) east-west (B) north-south (C) up and down (D) none of these A sonar device on a submarine sends out a signal and receives an echo 5 s later. Calculate the speed of sound in water if the distance of the object from the submarine is 3625 m : (A) 1550 ms-1 (B) 1450 ms-1 (C) 3000 ms-1 (D) 3625 ms-1 9. The product of time period and frequency is : (A) 0 (C) infinite 22. 23. (B) 1 (D) 0 or 1 10. 1kHz is equivalent to : (A) 10 Hz (C) 1000 Hz The wavelength of sound in air is 5 cm. Its frequency is (Take velocity of sound = 330 m/s) : (A) 6.6 kilo cycles per second (B) 660 cycles per second (C) 6.6 mega cycles per second (D) 6 × 109 cycles per second (B) 100 Hz (D) 10000 Hz For a given frequency, the loudness is related to : (A) amplitude (B) wavelength (C) harmonics (D) none of the adove 11. Infrasonic frequency range is : (A) below 20 Hz (B) 20 Hz to 20 kHz 5

  6. 24. (3) small amplitude (4) large amplitude (A) (1) (B) (1) (C) (1) (D) (1) ® (r) High frequency (s) Low frequency s, (3) p, (4) p, (3) r. (4) q, (3) r, (4) s, (3) r, (4) ® ® In a sound wave, the direction of propagation is : (A) in the direction of the vibrations of the vibrating body (B) opposite to the direction of vibrations of vibrating body (C) perpendicular to the direction of vibrations of the vibrating body ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® r, (2) r. (2) s, (2) p, (2) q q p q 28. Velocity of sound is maximum in : (A) water (C) air (B) oil (D) iron 25. 26. During summer, an echo is heard : (A) sooner than during winter (B) later than during winter (C) after same time as in winter (D) rarely 29. Which frequency of sound will be heard by us ? (A) 10 Hz (C) 18 Hz (B) 16 Hz (D) 25 Hz 30. Time period of a sound wave having the wavelength 0.2 m and frequency 10 Hz will be : (A) 2 s (B) 0.2 s (C) 0.1 s (D) 0.02 s The frequency of ultrasonic waves lies in the same range as that of radio frequency waves. However. (A) the ultrasonic waves are mechanical and longitudinal in nature (B) the ultrasonic waves are transverse and electromagnetic (C) the ultrasonic waves are longitudinal and electromagnetic (D) nature of both is similar 27. Mark the correct options according to terms in column I and column II Column I Column II (1) high pitch (p) Faint sound (2) low pitch (q) Loud sound 6

  7. LIGHT 12. If the refractive indices for water and diamond relative to air are 1.33 and 2.4 respectively then the refractive index of diamond relative to water is: (A) 0.55 (B) 1.80 (C) 3.19 (D) None of these LIGHT 1. Which medium has the minimum refractive index with respect to vacuum ? (A) Glass (C) Water 2. The unit of refractive index is : (A) cm/s (C) N-m 3. The image formed by convex lens in a simple microscope is : (A) Virtual and erect (B) real and inverted (C) equal in size with the object (D) none of these 4. A man wearing glasses of focal length – 1m cannot clearly see beyond one meter : (A) If he is far sighted (B) If he is near sighted (C) If his vision is normal (D) In each of these cases 5. At the time of sun set, the sun seems to be : (A) Lower than its actual position (B) At its actual position (C) Higher than its actual position (D) None of these 6. The phenomenon of light in which light that strikes to smooth surface and thrown back into the same medium is called : (A) reflection (C) scattering 7. On entering a glass prism, sum rays are : (A) Deviated but not dispersed (B) Deviated and dispersed (C) Dispersed but not deviated (D) Neither deviated nor dispersed 8. A cut diamond sparkles because of its : (A) Hardness (B) High refractive index (C) Emission of light by the diamond (D) Absorption of light by the diamond 9. If angle of incidence is 600, than the angle of reflection will be : (A) 300 (C) 1200 10. A person standing in front of a mirror finds his image smaller that himself and erect, This implies the mirror is : (A) plane (C) convex (D) None of the above 11. Mark the wrong statement. (A) Refractive index decreases with increase in temperature. (B) Refractive index depends on the angle of incidence. (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these 13. Light rays A and B fall on optical component X and come out as C and D. B) Air D) Oil (B) It has in unit (D) m/s2 The optical component is a : (A) concave lens (C) convex mirror (B) convex lens (D) none of these 14. The lens used in spectacles for the correction of short sightedness is a : (A) concave lens (B) convex lens (C) piano-convex lens (D) none of these 15. A tall man of height 6 feet, want to see his full image. Then required minimum length of the plane mirror will be : (A) 12 feet (B) 3 feet (C) 16 feet (D) any length 16. According to law of reflection of light : (A) Angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection (B) Angle of incidence is less than the angle of reflection (C) Angle of incidence is greater than the angle of reflection (D) None of these (B) refraction (D) none of these 17. To get three images of a single object, one should have two plane mirrors at an angle of : (A) 300 (B) 500 (C) 600 (D) 900 18. What should be the minimum height of a plane mirror to get a full image of a man whose height is h ? (A) h (B) 2h (C) h/2 (D) h/4 (B) 600 (D) 900 19. A point source of light is placed in front of a plane mirror, then : (A) all the reflected rays meet at a point when produced backward (B) only the reflected rays close to the normal meet at a point when produced backward (C) only the reflected drays making a small angle with the mirror, meet at a point when produced backward (D) light of different colours make different images (B) concave 7

  8. 20. In convex lens, if the object is at infinity then position of image is at : (A) Infinity (B) Between F and 2F (C) At the Focus (D) None of these 29. At what angle two plane mirrors should be placed to form 11 of an object ? (A) 200 (B) 300 (C) 400 (D) 500 21. 30. The R.I. of kerosene is 1.42. Calculate the speed of light in it: (A) 4,26,000 km/s (B) 300,000 km/s (C) 211,268 km/s (D) 279,988 km/s An object is placed at focus of a convex lens the image will be formed at : (A) At focus (B) Between focus and infinity (C) At infinity (D) No where A ray light falling at an angle passes through a rectangular glass slab, then the : (A) incident and emergent rays are parallel to each other (B) emergent rays bend away from the normal (C) refracted rays bend away from the normal (D) rays split into their constituents and a spectrum is formed A photographic camera has a convex lens fixed on one face while the film, acting as screen, is kept on opposite face. The lens makes an image of the object to be photographed, which is : (A) real, inverted and smaller in size (B) virtual, inverted and smaller in size (C) virtual, inverted and of the same size (D) real, erect and of the same size A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle of incidence i. After reflection the ray will deviate b an angle : (A) i (B) π – i (C) 2i (D) π – 2i Match the items given in Column I with II Column-I Column-II I. A plane mirror A. Used for shaving II. A concave mirror B. Forms an image which is as far behind the mirror as the object is in front of it. III. A convex lens C. Used as a magnifier IV. A concave lens D. Forms an image which is erect and smaller in size than the object Which of the following matching is correct ? (A) I.B; II.A; III, C; IV,D (B) I,B; II,D; III,C; IV, A (C) I,B; II,A; III,D; IV,C (D) I,A; II,B; III,C; IV,D 22. When light goes from glass to air, it bends : (A) Away the normal (B) Towards the normal (C) (A) AND (B) both correct (D) None of these 31. 23. If a convex lens is thin (radius of curvature is large), then its focal large), then its focal length is: (A) Small (B) large (C) nothing can be said (D) None of these 24. Visual optical instrument used for seeing near tiny objects magnified, is called a : (A) Telescope (B) Microscope (C) spectroscope (D) Thermoscope 32. 25. Hypermetropia is due to the : (A) low converging power (B) low diverging power (C) high converging power (D) high diverging power 33. 26. The refractive indices of two media are equal. When a ray of light entres from first medium to second medium : (A) Velocity of ray will change. (B) The direction of motion of the ray will change. (C) The ray will move in the same direction. (D) The ray will reflect from the surface of the medium. The image of an object formed by a concave lens is always : (A) enlarged, inverted and real (B) small, inverted and real (C) enlarged, erect and virtual (D) small, erect and virtual 34. 27. 28. Light ray AB incidents on a plane mirror XY at an angle of 500. The second plane mirror is placed is such a way that the reflected ray BC from the mirror XY retraces its path. Angle of inclination of two mirrors will be : (A) 250 (B) 500 (C) 750 (C) 900 8

  9. 11. The unit of electric power is : (A) Watt (W) (C) Joule (J) ELECTRICITY 1. An electric current of 5 A is the same as: (A) 5 JC-1 (C) 5 Cs-1 2. Which of the following relation is wrong ? (A) Q = It (B) Ampere (A) (D) Ohm (Ω) 12. kWh is a unit of : (A) Resistance (C) electrical energy (B) 5VC-1 (D) 5 Ws-1 (B) Power (D) None 13. Which is correct for electric power : v P = 1 Coulomb 1 (B) P= I2R (A) = 1 ampere (B) 1 I Second 2 (C) V = WQ = P (D) P = V2R (C) W R V = (D) 14. How many calories of heat will approximately be developed in a 210 W electric bulb in 5 min ? (A) 1500 (B) 1050 (C) 63.000 (D) 80,000 Q 3. If a charged body attracts another body, the charge on the other body : (A) must be negative or zero (B) must be positive (C) must be zero (D) may be positive, negative or zero 15. Lows of heating are given by : (A) Joule (C) Maxwell (B) Ohm (D) Faraday 4. 16. Green wire is used for : (A) Live wire (C) earth wire How much electrical energy in kilowatt hour is consumed in operating ten, 50 watt bulbs for 10 hours per day in a month of june ? (A) 15 (B) 150 (C) 1500 (D) 15000 The maximum current that can be allowed to pass through 100 W – 250 V lamp is : (A) 2.5 amp (B) 1.00 amp (C) 0.40 amp (D) 0.25 amp Dry cell is modification of : (A) Voltaic cell (B) Daniel cell (C) Leclanche cell (D) None of them (B) neutral wire (D) none of these 5. If the length of a resistance wire is doubled and radius is reduced to half, then the specific resistance of the wire as compared to previous value will be : (A) four times (B) eight times (C) half (D) unchanged 17. 1 18. W 6. A man has five resistors each of value . What is the 5 maximum resistance he can obtain by connecting them ? (A) 1Ω (B) 5 Ω 1 19. First electric cell was : (A) Dry cell (C) Daniel cell (B) Voltaic (D) Leclanche cell 2 W W (C) (D) 2 5 20. 7. Two copper wires, one of length 1m and the other of length 9 m, are found to have the same resistance. Their diameters are in the ratio : (A) 3:1 (B) 1:9 (C) 9:1 (D) 1:3 Container in which electrolysis oceur is : (A) Voltmeter (C) both (A) and (B) (B) Voltmeter (D) neither (A) nor (B) 21. During electrolysis cations loose their charge : (A) at cathode (C) either (A) or (B) 8. (B) at anode (D)neither (A) nor (B) A wire of resistance 6 Ω is cut into three equal pieces, which are joined to form a triangle. The equivalent resistance between any two comers of the triangle is : 4 22. 3 electroplating is a method of : (A) making plates using electricity (B) plating a metal with another metal (C) coating any object with an electrically conducting plate (D) coating a metal with another metal by passing an electric current W W (A) (B) 3 4 (C) 2 Ω (D) 3 Ω 9. In an electric circuit, ammeter and voltmeter are always connected in : (A) parallel, series (B) series, parallel (C) series, series (D) parallel, parallel 23. 10. A current of 2A passing through conductor produces 80J of heat in 10 s. The resistance of the conductor is : (A) 0.5 Ω (B) 2 Ω (C) 5 Ω (D) 20 Ω How many electrons in one second constitute a current of one micro ampere ? (A) 6.25 × 108 (B) 6.25 × 1012 (C) 6.25 × 109 (D) 6.25 × 1015 9

  10. 24. From a power station, the power is transmitted at a very high voltage because : (A) it is generated only at high voltage (B) it is cheaper to produce electricity at high voltage (C) electricity at high voltage is less dangerous (D) there is less loss of energy in transmission at high voltage (C) 60W (D) 40W 33. Three resistance of value 1Ω, 2 Ω and 3 Ω are connected in parallel. If the effective resistance of the circuit has to be 1 Ω, the value of the resistance to be connected in series to this circuit should be : 6 5 W W (A) (B) 25. 11 4 11 3 When a fuse is rated 8A, it means : (A) it will not work if current is less than 8A (B) it has a resistance of 8 ohm (C) it will work only if current is 8A (D) it will burn if current exceeds 8A W W (C) (D) 11 11 34. In a dry electric cell : (A) chemical energy is converted into light energy (B) chemical energy is converted onto electrical energy (C) chemical energy is converted onto thermal energy (D) thermal energy is converted into electrical energy 26. Fuse wire is made of : (A) platinum (C) aluminium (B) copper (D) alloy of tin and lead 27. 35. The unit for electric conductivity (A) ohm per cm (C) ohm per second In the given electric circuit, at which place safety fuse should be fixed ? (B) ohm × cm (D) mho × m-1 28. Gases are good conductors of electricity at : (A) high pressure (C) low temperature (B) low pressure (D) high temperature 29. The specific resistance of a wore maries with its : (A) Length (C) Mass (B) Cross-section (D) Material (A) A (C) C 30. (B) B (D) D The variable resistance is called : (A) resistor (C) open switch (B) rheistat (D) none of these 36. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II. Column-I Column-II I. Electric bulb A. Magnetic effect of current II. Electric generator B. Heating effect of current III. Electro magnet C. Chemical effect of current VI. Button cell D. Electromagnetic induction Which of the following matching is correct ? (A) I, D (B) II, C (C) III, A (D) IV, B 31. An electric bulb is connected in an electric circuit, If 10 C charge flows through this bulb in 5 seconds, current flowing in bulb will be : (A) 2 Ampere (B) 3 Ampere (C) 4 Ampere (D) 5 Ampere 32. 40W, 60W, 100w and 500W bulbs working on 220 Volt AC are connected in the electric circuit in such a way that same current flows through each bulb. The bulb having maximum resistance is (A) 500W (B) 100W 10

  11. (A) a moving charge (B) A changing electric field (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these MAGNETISM The magnetic lines of force : (A) intersect at the neutral point (B) intersect near north and south poles. (C) cannot intersect at all (D) depend upon the position of the magnet 1. 12. Which one of these is temporary magnet ? (A) Bar magnet (B) Electromagnet (C) U shaped magnet (D) Horse-shoe magnet 2. In an electric bell when iron strip displaces from its original position, then : (A) current will stop flowing (B) electromagnet looses its magnetism (C) both A and B (D) none of these 13. A generator or dynamo works on the principle of : (A) magnetic effect of electric current (B) electromagnetic induction (C) chemical effect of electric current (D) heating effect of electric current 3. Magnetic field is a : (A) vector quantity (B) scalar quantity (C) scalar as well as vector quantity (D) neither vector nor scalar 14. The magnetic field lines due to a bar magnet are correctly shown in : 4. Magnetic lines of force determines : (A) the shape of the magnetic field (B) only the direction the magnetic field (C) only the relative strength of the magnetic field (D) both the direction and the relative strength of the magnetic field 15. (A) (B) 5. (C) The S.I. unit of magnetic field intensity is : (A) Weber (C) Oersted (D) (B) Tesla (D) none of these 6. C.G.S. unit of magnetic field intensity is : (A) Tesla (C) Weber Magnetic effect of current was discovered by : (A) Faraday (C) Ampere (B) Gauss (D) none of these (B) Oersted (D) Bohr 7. 16. Alnico is a material which is used to make : (A) temporary magnet (B) permanent magnet (C) both (A) and (B) (D) none of these In an electric motor, conversion takes place of : (A) Chemical energy into electrical energy (B) Electrical energy into mechanical energy (C) Electrical energy into light (D) electrical energy into chemical energy 8. The chemical formula of magnetite (natural magnet) is: (A) Fe2O3 (B) Fe3O4 (C) ReO (D) ReO2 17. The vertical plane which passes through the magnetic axis of a freely suspended magnet is : (A) Magnetic meridian (B) Geographical meridian (C) North meridian (D) South meridian 9. The south pole of the earth’s magnetic field points to the : (A) geographic North (B) geographic South (C) both (A) and (B) are correct (D) none of these 18. 10. The similar magnets of steel are …………than the magnets of soft iron. (A) stronger (B) of equal strength (C) weaker (D) none of these When current is flowing in straight conductor, the associated magnetic lines of force are : (A) straight (B) elliptical (C) circular (D) parabolic A magnetic field can be produced by : 11. 11

  12. 19. the magnetism in a magnet is mainly due to : (A) The orbital motion of the electrons (B) The spin motion of the electrons (C) The nuclear charge (D) None of these 26. For making a strong electromagnet, the material of the core should be : (A) soft iron (B) steel (C) brass (D) laminated steel strips 20. A magnet can be demagnetized by : (A) Hammering the magnet (B) By heating the magnet (C) Without use of keepers (D) All of these 27. The permanent magnet are kept with soft iron pieces at ends an keepers : (A) to magnetise the soft iron pieces (B) to increase the strength of the magnetic (C) to avoid self demagnetization (D) for physical safety of the magnets 21. The effective length of the magnet is : (A) the complete length of the magnet (B) the distance between the two poles of the magnet (C) the half of the length of the magnet (D) the square of the length of the magnet 28. Value of tesla in gauss is : (A) 103 (C) 104 (B) 106 (D) 102 29. The earth’s magnetic field is maximum : (A) at poles of the earth (B) at centre of the earth (C) at outer surface of the earth (D) none of these 22. Magnetic field lines outside the magnet start : (A) from N-poles (B) from S-poles (C) from current-carrying wires (D) none of these 30. The magnetic south pole of the earth is near to : (A) geographical north pole (B) geographical south pole (C) east (D) west 23. A transformer used to reduce the alternating voltage is : (A) Step-up transformer (B) Step-down transformer (C) both (A) and (B) (D) none of these 31. What happens when a bar-magnet is broken into two pieces? (A) The magnetism is destroyed (B) Each piece becomes a magnet (C) One piece becomes a north-pole and the other becomes a south-pole (D) One piece remains a magnet and the other becomes an ordinary bar Which of the following statements is true ? (A) An electromagnet does not attract a piece of iron. (B) An electric current flowing in a circuit deflects a magnetic needle (C) An electric bell has a permanent magnet (D) An electromagnet can be used to separate plastic bags from a garbage heap. 24. If a bar magnet is cut lengthwise into 3 parts, the total number of poles will be : (A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 3 (D) 4 32. 25. A soft iron bar is introduced inside a current carrying solenoid. The magnetic field inside the solenoid : (A) will become zero (B) will decrease (C) will increase (D) will remain unaffected 12

  13. ANSWER KEY MOTION, FORCE, WORK AND ENERGY 3 4 5 B C C 13 14 15 D C D 23 24 25 D D D 33 34 C D HEAT 3 4 5 B B B 13 14 15 A D A 23 24 25 C A A 33 34 35 C C C SOUND 3 4 5 A A B 13 14 15 C C B 23 24 25 A A A LIGHT Q A. Q A. Q A. Q A. 1 B 11 A 21 D 31 A 2 A 12 C 22 D 32 C 6 V 16 B 26 A 7 V 17 A 27 A 8 A 18 A 28 A 9 A 19 B 29 B 10 B 20 C 30 A Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. 1 A 11 B 21 A 31 A 2 A 12 B 22 B 32 C 6 B 16 A 26 A 36 C 7 C 17 A 27 D 37 B 8 A 18 D 28 C 9 B 19 B 29 C 10 D 20 A 30 D Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. 1 D 11 A 21 B 2 B 12 A 22 C 6 A 16 C 26 C 7 A 17 A 27 A 8 A 18 A 28 D 9 B 19 A 29 D 10 A 20 D 30 A Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. 1 B 11 B 21 C 31 A 2 B 12 B 22 A 32 A 3 A 13 A 23 B 33 D 4 B 14 A 24 B 34 A 5 C 15 B 25 A 6 A 16 A 26 C 7 B 17 D 27 D 8 B 18 C 28 B 9 B 19 A 29 B 10 C 20 C 30 C ELECTRICITY Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. 1 C 11 A 21 A 31 A 2 C 12 C 22 D 32 D 3 D 13 B 23 B 33 B 4 C 14 A 24 D 34 B 5 D 15 A 25 D 35 A 6 A 16 B 26 D 36 C 7 D 17 C 27 D 8 A 18 C 28 B 9 B 19 B 29 D 10 B 20 B 30 B MAGNETISM Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. 1 C 11 C 21 B 31 B 2 C 12 B 22 A 32 B 3 A 13 B 23 B 4 D 14 D 24 B 5 B 15 B 25 C 6 B 16 B 26 A 7 B 17 A 27 C 8 B 18 C 28 C 9 A 19 B 29 A 10 C 20 D 30 A 13

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