AWS

1. AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner Exam Personal Study Guide Disclaimer: These are my personal study notes I made to prepare for the aws cloud practitioner exam. I can’t guarantee all the information is 100% correct. Please do not use this video as your only source to prepare for the exam. 90% of this content source is from the Amazon AWS website.

2. What is AWS Responsible for in the Responsibility Model? (Select Two) • A. Customer Data • B. Operating System • C. Firewall • D. Heating and Cooling of Data Center • E. Network • F. Storage

3. Which is not necessarily a Cloud Trail feature? • A. securely and reliably handles a broad set of big data • B. government, compliance, risk auditing • C. Log, monitor, retain, record events across AWS • D. Cloudwatch can use this information to take action

4. Total Cost of Ownership consist of which of the following: (Select Two) • A. TCO calculator • B. based on the popular Jupyter Notebook • C. lets you dive deeper into your cost and usage data to identify trends, pinpoint cost drivers, and detect anomalies • D. pay as you go model • E. offers fully managed Redis and Memcached

5. Which is NOT a necessarily a Cost Explorer feature? • A. can be created and tracked from the AWS Budgets dashboard • B. easy-to-use interface, visualize, understand, manage costs and usage over time • C. dive deeper in cost, usage data, identify trends, pinpoint cost drivers, detect anomalies • D. future forecasting

6. Which is a feature of Trusted Advisor? • A. customized cloud expert, delayed-time software • B. It will inspect your aws environment for performance • C. It will inspect your aws environment for reliability • D. It will inspect aws environment for security

7. Which is not a necessarily a feature of Consolidated Billing? • A. One bill – You get one bill for multiple accounts. • B. Easy tracking – You can track the charges across multiple accounts. • C. Combined usage – You can combine the usage across all accounts in the organization • D. Auto Scaling– ensures that your application is able to receive traffic.

8. Which is a managed Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) protection service that safeguards applications running on AWS? • A. AWS Shield • B. CloudFront • C. Security Group • D. Cloud Trail

9. Which acts as a firewall that controls traffic allowed to reach one or more instances? • A. (DDoS) Response Team • B. Security group • C. CloudFront • D. Edge Location

10. Which is not true about Penetration Testing • A. Get Permissions from AWS first • B. It can be done on your infrastructure only • C. You must be logged into the AWS portal using the root credentials • D. You do not have to request permission if you are testing in your own AWS VPC environment

11. True or False? • Before performing security testing on AWS resources, you must obtain approval from AWS

12. Which is network service that provides an alternative to using the Internet to connect customer's on premise sites to AWS? • A) AWS-managed VPN • B) AWS Direct Connect

13. Which is a hardware Ipsec.. that enables you to create an encrypted connection over the public Internet? • A) AWS-managed VPN • B) AWS Direct Connect

14. Which is not a feature of Amazon Inspector? • A. automated security assessment service that improve security and compliance of applications deployed • B. automatically assesses applications for exposure, vulnerabilities, and deviations from best practices • C. is an API-driven service that analyzes network configurations in your AWS account • D. manage subnet in your VPC to protect against incoming traffic requests

15. True or False? • An IAM role is similar to a user, in that it is an AWS identity with permission policies that determine what the identity can and cannot do in AWS

16. Which is a non-relational Database? • A. RDS • B. Dynamo DB • C. mySQL • D. Auroa

17. Which is infrequently accessed data archives? • A. Glacier • B. S3 • C. CloudFront • D. CloudWatch • E. Edge Location

18. Which instance type gives a discount (up to 75%) compared to On-Demand instance pricing? • A. Reserved Instance • B. Spot Instance • C. Dedicated Host • D. On-Demand

19. Which instance type gives a discount (up to 90%) compared to On-Demand instance pricing? • A. Reserved Instance • B. Spot Instance • C. Dedicated Host • D. On-Demand

20. Which instance type can be interrupted? • A. Reserved Instance • B. Spot Instance • C. Dedicated Host • D. On-Demand

21. Which instance type canNOT be interrupted? • A. Reserved Instance • B. Spot Instance • C. Dedicated Host • D. On-Demand

22. Which instance type can help reduce costs by allowing you to use existing server-bound software licenses? • A. Reserved Instance • B. Spot Instance • C. Dedicated Host • D. On-Demand

23. Which is NOT a feature of Elastic Beanstalk? • A. provisions and operates the infrastructure and manages the application stack (platform) for you, so you don't have to spend the time or develop the expertise • B. automatically scales your application up and down based on your application's specific need using easily adjustable Auto Scaling settings • C. maintains a minimal version of an environment is always running in the cloud • D. keep the underlying platform running your application up-to-date with the latest patches and updates

24. Which best describes a feature of CloudFormation? • A. is available through AWS for a low fee • B. allows you to use a simple text file to model and provision, all the resources needed for your applications • C. allows you to model a small portion of infrastructure in a text file • D. uses multiple files serving as multiple sources of truth for your cloud environment

25. Which is NOT a feature of Amazon Direct Connect? • A. easy to set up a dedicated network connection from your premises to AWS • B. can reduce network costs, increase bandwidth, provide consistent network experience than Internet connections • C. can be a VPN Connection • D. codifying your infrastructure allows you to treat your infrastructure as just code

26. Which is NOT a feature of SQS? • A. diverting traffic to instances based on the demand and least load • B. fully managed message queuing service that enables you to decouple and scale microservices, distributed systems, and serverless applications • C. You can send, store, and receive messages between software components at any volume, without losing messages or requiring other services to be available • D. can send messages to and receive messages from an Amazon SQS queue

27. True of False? • S3 durability is 99.999999999% and S3 availability 99.99%

28. True or False? • AWS Config - service that enables you to assess, audit, and evaluate the configurations of your AWS resources. Config continuously monitors and records your AWS resource configurations and allows you to automate the evaluation of recorded configurations against desired configurations.

29. True of False? • VPC stands for Visual Private Cloud

30. Which Framework is NOT necessarily associated with EMR? (Select Two) • A. Hadoop • B. Hbase • C. Ajax • D. Flink • E. Apache Spark • F. JQuery

31. Which is NOT a feature of AMI • A. provides the information required to launch an instance • B. You must specify a source AMI when you launch an instance • C. You can launch multiple instances from a single AMI • D. service that securely delivers data, videos, applications

32. Which best suits this definition? • offers fully managed Redis and Memcached - real-time apps, gaming, ride hailing, media streaming, dating, social media store as database cache, message broker, queue, real time transactions • A. Snap Shot • B. Amazon ElastiCache • C. S3 • D. AMI

33. Which best suits this definition? • fast content delivery network (CDN) service that securely delivers data, videos, applications, and APIs to customers globally with low latency, high transfer speeds, all within a developer-friendly environment using edge locations • A. CloudFront • B. Amazon ElastiCache • C. AWS Marketplace • D. Auto Scaling

34. Which is a feature of SnapShot? • A. are incremental backups • B. can continuously monitor your AWS resources • C. can receive messages between software components at any volume • D. enables you to decouple and scale microservices

35. Which Best Suits this Defintion? • sales channel, that makes it easy for Sellers to offer software solutions that run on the AWS cloud • A. Acceptable Use Policy • B. Service control policies(SCPs) • C. AWS Marketplace • D. AWS SuperStore

36. Which Definition is NOT Correct? A. Acceptable Use Policy -Describes Prohibited Actions B. Policy Document -that provides a formal statement of (one or more permissions) provides formal statement of Permissions, resource, action, effect, principal, JSON, what user can do C. Service control policies (SCPs) - manage your organization and restrict, at the account level of granularity, what services and actions the users, groups, and roles in those accounts can do D. PCI Compliant – software that has the ability to patch itself

37. Which is NOT associated with the AWS support plans? • A. Basic • B. Developer • C. Advanced • D. Business • E. Enterprise – support Concierge

38. True or False? • AWS Management Console is command line based on your local host?

39. GOOD LUCK • Hope this helps