CHS I 130701 - 1

1. CHS I 130701 - 1

2. 1. The maximum length allowed between main and traverse bulkheads on a vessel as referred to as: A. Permissible length B. Floodable length C. Factor of Subdivision D. Compartment standard

3. 2. The term "scantlings " refers to the: A. draft of a vessel B. measurements of structural members C. requirements for ship's gear D. placement of a vessel's loadline

4. 3. A welded joint's effectiveness is considered: A. 48% B. 90% C. 100% D. 121%

5. 4. The smallest size of flaw that can be detected on a radiograph examination of a weld will be indicated by the: A. film speed B. penetrometer C. exposure reading D. time of exposure

6. 5. While in drydock your vessel will be belt-gauged. This process involves: A. Measuring the thickness of the tail shaft liner. B. Taking the vessel's offsets to check for hull deformation C. Testing and examining the anchor cables for defective links. D. Drilling or sonic-testing the hull to determine the plate thickness

7. 6. A large basin cut into the shore, closed off by a caisson, and used for drydocking of ships is known as a: A. Slip way B. Graving dock C. Ground warp D. Caisson Dock - SPACE IN SHIP BUILDING YARD. • A MANILA & WIRE ROPE/IN • FRENCH RIGGED TRAWL NET • CHAMBER FOR WORKING UNDER • WATER

8. 7. Which statement about a vessel's stability while dry-docking is true? A. Every ton of weight bearing on the blocks acts as if a ton of weight was removed at keel level. B. When the ship touches the blocks, the beam for stability purposes increases to the beam of the dry dock. C. The stability of the vessel increases as a dock is pumped out due to the support of the keel blocks. D. As the dock begins to support the weight of the vessel, stability calculations are based on the ship and dock as a single unit.

9. 8. The purpose of inclining experiment on a vessel is to determine: A. Lightweight center of gravity location B. The position of the center of buoyancy C. The position of the metacenter D. The maximum loadline

10. 9. When making a turn on most merchant ships, the vessel will heel outwards if: A. A vessel has very little draft B. G is above the center of lateral resistance C. G is below the center of lateral resistance D. The vessel is deeply laden

11. 10. Forces within a vessel have caused a difference between the starboard and port drafts. This difference is: A. list B. heel C. trim D. floatation

12. 11. If the cause of severe list or trim is off-center ballast, counterflooding into empty tanks will: A. increase the righting moment B. increase the righting arm C. increase list or trim D. decrease list or trim

13. 12. If the cause of a sudden severe list or trim is negative initial stability, counterflooding into empty tanks may: A. increase the righting moment B. cause an increase in the righting arm C. bring the unit to an upright equilibrium position D. cause the unit to flop to a greater angle

14. 13. GM cannot be used as an indicator of stability at all angles of inclination because: A. M is not fixed at large angles B. There is no M at large angles C. G is not fixed at large angles D. There is no G at large angles

15. 14. On a vessel of 9,000 tons displacement, there are two slack deep tanks of palm oil (S.G. 0.86). Each tank is 40' long and 30' wide. What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface with the vessel in sea water (S.G. 1.025)? A. 0.24 ft B. 0.48 ft C. 0.57 foot D. 0.74 ft FSC = r l b3 420 Δ = (.839)(40)(30)3 420 (9,000) = .2397 x 2 .4794 r = spec. grav. of liquid in tk. spec. grav. where vsl float = 0.86 1.025 = 0.839

16. 15. What is the principal danger from the liquid in a half-full tank on board a vessel? A. Corrosion from the shifting liquid B. Rupturing of the bulkhead from the shifting liquid C. Loss of stability due to free surface effect D. Holing of the tank bottom from the weight of the shifting liquid

17. 16. A ship is lying at the mouth of the river in water density 1024 kgs/m3 and the displacement is 12,000 tonnes. The ship is to proceed up river and to berth in dock water of density 1008kgs/m3 with the same draft as at present. Find the amount of ballast to be discharge: A, 195.7 T B. 193.0 T C. 187.5 T D. 189.6 T N DISPL. = N DENS. O DISPL O DENS N DISPL = O DISPL X N DENS O DENS = 12,000 X 1008 1024 = 11,812.5 (–) 12,000 = 187.5

18. 17. Relative density of a substance is the number of times that any volume of the substance is heavier than an equal volume of pure fresh water at a temperature of: A. 0 C B. 4 C C. 0 F D. 4 F

19. 18. In accordance with the international load line convention (1966), which became effective in July 1968, loadlines were established for all new vessels of what gross tonnage? A. 150 gross tons or over if they engaged in foreign voyage B. 300 gross tons or over if they engaged in foreign voyage C. 400 gross tons or over if they engaged in foreign voyage D. Less than 400 G.T

20. 19. It means a special load line assigned to ships complying with certain conditions related to their construction set out in the international convention on load lines and used when the cargo complies with the stowage and securing conditions of this code. A. Summer load line B. Timber load line C. Winter North Atlantic load line D. Tropical fresh load line

21. 20. Cargo that is highly susceptible to damage by tainting from odorous cargo is called _____. A. clean cargo B. delicate cargo C. dry cargo D. immune cargo

22. 21. Cargo that gives off fumes that may contaminate other cargo is known as a ( n ) _________. A. delicate cargo B. dirty cargo C. toxic cargo D. odorous cargo

23. 22. The internal volume of a cargo hold measured from the inside faces of the cargo battens; and lower side of the deck beams, and the top of the tank top ceiling is known as the: A. gross tonnage B. deadweight space C. bale cubic D. stowage area

24. 23. Which term describes goods having a stowage factor below 40? A. deadweight cargo B. full and down cargo C. heavy-lift cargo D. measurement cargo

25. 24. If you want to lift small particles, which of the following would you use? A. Pallet B. Cargo hook C. Sling D. Cargo net

26. 25. When two-leg sling attached to one hoist line is used to lift a load, a sling of 40 ft in length is better than one of 30 ft because the: A. tension in the sling legs is less B. load can be lifted higher C. sling will be easier to attach D. sling will be easier to remove

27. 26. A periodic thorough examination of the cargo gear proves satisfactory. What percentage of the total gear must be dismantled to determine actual internal condition? A. none B. 10% C. 25% D. 100%

28. 27. All wire rope used in shipboard cargo gear must be identified and described in a certificate. The certificate shall certify all of the following except? A. date of the test B. load at which a test sample broke C. name of the vessel D. number of strands and of wires in each strand

29. 28. What is required to be stenciled at the heel of a cargo boom? A. maximum angle of elevation permitted B. date of the last quadrennial test C. safe working load D. maximum load when doubled up

30. 29. Which of the following statements about the carriage of solid hazardous materials in bulk is true? A. A special permit issued by the coast guard is required before the cargo is loaded. B. The loading of cargo must be conducted under the direction and observation of a person employed or assigned for that purpose. C. A certificate issued y ABS will be accepted as evidence that the vessel complies with all applicable loading regulations. D. The shipping papers must indicate the primary hazardous characteristics or property of the material.

31. 30. It means that a piping on venting system, for example, is in no way connected to another system and that there are no provisions available for the potential connection to other system. A. segregated B. self-contained C. independent D. separate

32. 31. This is a cargo ship constructed or adapted and used for the carriage in bulk of any liquid product. A. Product tanker B. Crude carrier C. Chemical tanker D. LPG tanker

33. 32. A tank vessel propelled by power is a A. tank ship B. tank vessel C. tank barge D. any of the above

34. 33. A flammable liquid with a reid vapor pressure of 8 1/2 psi or less and a flash point of 80F and below is grade. A. B B. C C. A D. All of the above

35. 34. The lowest temperature at which a liquid will give off vapors that will burn when ignited but will stop burning once the source of ignition is removed, is called its: A. flash point B. anti-ignition temperature C. fire point D. lower explosive limit

36. 35. The minimum concentration of a vapor in air that can form an explosive mixture is referred to as the: A. auto- ignition temperature B. flash point C. lower explosive limit D. fire point

37. 36. The vapor pressure of a gas is a pressure necessary to keep it in a(n): A. soluble state B. solid state C. liquefied state D. inert state

38. 37. Coast guard regulations that electric and electro hydraulic steering gear motors shall be. A. served by two electric power feeder- circuits B. provided with a motor-running over current protection device C. protected by a circuit breaker and a thermal overload device D. served by a single two-conductor cable

39. 38. The warning sign used on tank vessels when moored or anchored and transferring a petroleum cargo says: A. "danger, do not approach, do not board" B. "warning, no smoking, no open lights, no visitors C. " dangerous cargo" D. all of the above

40. 39. Smoking is not permitted on the weather decks of tank vessels: A. a except when sand pails are provided and are filled B. except when water is being used to cool the decks C. when loading cargo through open hatches D. under any circumstances unless the vessel is gas free and is not alongside

41. 40. The minimum protective clothing outfit to wear when taking cargo samples of a hazardous cargo on a tank ship includes: A. hood or hard hat B. face mask or goggles C. boots D. chemical resistant gloves

42. 41. Stop loading grade A, B or C cargo immediately if: A. another ship or tug comes alongside near the area of the transfer B. a fire starts on the dock on your vessel or on nearby ship C. any electrical storm approaches D. any of the above happens

43. 42. If an oil hose leaks a very small amount through its fabric: A. reduce pressure in the hose and continue pumping B. "quick patch" the leak and use a drip pan if the leak is small C. clamp the leak using two hose clamps and a section of inner tube and equivalent D. shut down and replace the hose

44. 43. It means filling the ullage space with a moisture free gas ( dew point <-40): A. padding B. purging C. drying D. ventilation • FILLING & MAINTAINING CARGO TANKS & • ASSO. PIPING SYS. W/ LIQUID,(INERT GAS) OR • VAPOR W/C SEPERATES CARGO FROM AIR. - MAKE CLEAN / PURIFY

45. 44. Pollution regulations require that each scupper in an enclosed deck area have a: A. wooden plug B. soft rubber plug C. mechanical means of closing D. none of the above

46. 45. How much space must you leave in a topped off tank for liquid expansion? A. No space is permitted: the tank must be pressed up to reduce free surface effect B. Generally 1% to 3% of the tank volume C. The amount specified on the certificate of inspection D. None of the above

47. 46. The most likely time for oil pollution when bunkering is when: A. final topping off occurs B. first starting to receive fuel C. hoses are being blown down D. hoses are disconnected and being capped

48. 47. These are used as intermediates for the production of chemicals, as solvents and for gasoline blending. Examples of these products are benzene , and xylene. A. essential oils B. vegetable oils C. aromatics D. animal oil

49. 48. Under the IMDG code, all hazardous cargoes are assigned to, a category representing their major hazard. These categories are assigned a number and are called: A. class B. group C. file D. section

50. 49. Corrosive liquids and acids should have what kind of level? A. skull and crossbones B. yellow C. red D. white