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Pharma Quiz 2013

Pharma Quiz 2013. Question No: 15. Team C . Carefully observe the eyes of the patient and name a drug that can cause this adverse effect. . Team C . Answer. Phenytoin Carbamazepine . Round 4. Think Tank. Rules for Round 4

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Pharma Quiz 2013

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  1. Pharma Quiz 2013

  2. Question No: 15 Team C Carefully observe the eyes of the patient and name a drug that can cause this adverse effect.

  3. Team C Answer Phenytoin Carbamazepine

  4. Round 4 Think Tank

  5. Rules for Round 4 • This round has two parts. Part 1 – Food for thought and Part 2 – Points to ponder. • Every team will be asked one question in each part. • Unanswered / wrongly answered questions pass to the next team. • You have 30 seconds to answer each direct question and five seconds for pass question. • Ten points for answering the direct question correctly and five points for a pass question.

  6. Round 4 – Part 1 Food for Thought

  7. Question No: 1 Team D Which antimicrobial agent is fortified in salt?

  8. Team D Answer Diethylcarbamazine

  9. Question No: 2 Team E Name a drug that should be administered along with a fatty meal to enhance absorption.

  10. Team E Answer Griseofulvin Atovaquone Saquinavir

  11. Question No: 3 Team A Which drug should not be administered along with dairy products?

  12. Team A Answer Tetracycline

  13. Question No: 4 Team B Dietary protein restriction is advised for patients on this drug and if needed, proteins are given at night time. Identify this drug.

  14. Team B Answer Levodopa

  15. Question No: 5 Team C Name the drug that is formulated as lollipop.

  16. Team C Answer Fentanyl

  17. Round 4 – Part 2 Points to Ponder

  18. Question No: 1 Team C Even though both atropine and hyoscine are anticholinergics, atropine is not used for motion sickness. Why?

  19. Team C Answer Atropine causes CNS excitation & delirium, whereas hyoscine causes drowsiness which aids in calming down the patient.

  20. Question No: 2 Team B Timolol is one of the first line agents for open angle glaucoma. But it is not a preferred agent for acute congestive glaucoma. Why?

  21. Team B Answer • Acute congestive glaucoma is an emergency condition and the IOP needs to be brought down immediately. Beta blockers have a long onset of action. • Moreover, the pathology is block of outflow rather than increase in secretion.

  22. Question No: 3 Team A Calcium channel blockers are class IV antiarrhythmics. Diltiazem and verapamil are used in arrhythmia whereas, nifedipine is not. Why?

  23. Team A Answer Diltiazem and verapamil have cardiodepressant activity. Whereas, nifedipine causes reflex tachycardia.

  24. Question No: 4 Team E Intravenous lorazepam is more preferred than diazepam for treatment of status epilepticus. Why?

  25. Team E Answer Lorazepam has lower propensity to cause respiratory depression than diazepam.

  26. Question No: 5 Team D Even though triiodothyronine (T3) is more active than thyroxine (T4) and both are available commercially, T4 (and not T3) is used for the treatment of hypothyroidism. Why?

  27. Team D Answer T3 has a rapid onset of effect and this can induce heart failure.

  28. Round 7 Rapid Fire

  29. Rules for Rapid Fire Round • Every team will be asked a series of ten questions. It has to be answered within two minutes. • Every team has to nominate a person to tell the answer. Discussion within the team is allowed, but the answer should be told only by the nominee. • If any person other than the nominee tells the answer, it is considered wrong even if the answer told by that person was correct. • If you don’t know the answer you can pass the question. If any time is left after all the ten question, passed questions can be reanswered. • Quiz master will proceed to the next question only after a response from you. It may be either the answer or ‘pass’. • Ten points for every correct answer. No negative marks for wrong answers.

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