2020 Valid Nokia 4A0-100 Practice Exam V10.02 Killtest

2. The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. 1.You are configuring your Nokia 7750SR Service Router from the Command Line Interface (CLI), and after entering a lengthy command, wish to return directly to the ROOT context. Which control command allows you to do this quickly? A. Ctrl-z B. Ctrl-c C. Esc D. Shift-Page Down Answer: A 2.Which of the following best describes a repeater? A. A passive device simply used to connect two or more cables. Does not generate or amplify any signals. B. A device that receives and retransmits a signal out its ports, but does not do any Layer 2 analysis of the data. C. A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 2 destination address, makes a decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted. D. A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 3 destination address, makes a decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted. Answer: B 3.How do protocols such as ATM and Frame-Relay support differentiating multiple customers or traffic types on the same physical wire? A. ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use Virtual Circuits to create logical separation of traffic. B. ATM and Frame-Relay are point-to-point protocols and do not support different customers or traffic type on the same physical wire. C. ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use VLAN's to create logical separation of traffic. D. ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use IP Header information to create logical separation of traffic. Answer: A 4.Which of the following is a feature of Layer 3? A. Provides an universal addressing scheme Nokia 4A0-100 Practice Exam V10.02 | Killtest B. Ensures data is delivered across the Layer 2 network. C. Provides reliable data transfers. D. Provides a physical interface to the network. Answer: A 5.The 201.148.26.0/24 network is subnetted using a /26 mask. How many subnets and host addresses will you obtain with this mask? A. 4 subnets, 64 hosts B. 64 subnets, 4 hosts C. 4 subnets, 62 hosts D. 64 subnets, 2 hosts 2 / 15

3. The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. E. 6 subnets, 30 hosts Answer: C 6.What kind of information can a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) client receive? A. Details of the configuration settings of each router on the network. B. A list of other DHCP clients. C. IP addresses and their lease times. D. Server time information Answer: C 7.Choose two true statements that characterize Link State Routing A. Routers send a copy of their routing table to their neighbors periodically. B. Routers flood link information throughout the entire area. C. Network converges quickly (within several seconds) after a topology change. D. Routers do not have precise knowledge of the entire network topology. Answer: BC 8.Which statement accurately explains the purpose of the TCP protocol and what it provides? A. The primary purpose of TCP is to provide reliable communications between application services. B. The primary purpose of TCP is to provide unreliable communications between application services C. The primary purpose of TCP is to provide IP routing between application services. D. The primary purpose of TCP is to define the correct format for the application layer such as JPEG or HTML. Answer: A 9.Which of the following is the best description of well known ports? A. Well known ports apply to routers only and are used for communication and control traffic. Well known port numbers are assigned by IANA and can have any value. B. Well known ports are used by TCP and UDP. Well known port numbers range from 1024 to 65535 and are assigned by IANA. C. Well known port numbers are used by both TCP and UDP. Well known port numbers range from 1 to 1023 and are assigned by IANA. D. Well known ports numbers are used by TCP only. Well known port numbers are assigned by IANA and Nokia 4A0-100 Practice Exam V10.02 | Killtest can have any value. Answer: C 10.Which organization first considered cross-platform networking support to be a necessity? A. IBM. B. US Military. C. Nokia. D. NASA. E. Bell Labs Answer: B 3 / 15

4. The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. 11.Which of the following statements best describes ARPANET? A. ARPANET was an early packet switched network initially connecting 4 sites (Stanford, UC Santa Barbara, UCLA, and U of Utah). B. The mission of ARPANET was to connect packet switched networks and other diverse networks, making an international network of networks. C. ARPANET connected sites spread around the Hawaiian Islands to a central time-sharing computer on the University of Hawaii campus. D. ARPANET was based on the use of TCP/IP to interconnect diverse systems. Answer: A 12.Kahn solved the problem of interconnecting different networks using different protocols by pioneering a new protocol called TCP that was capable of: A. Secure transmission of information. B. Enforcing a constant packet size to avoid discards. C. Allowing remote logins. D. Providing host to host connectivity with global addressing. Answer: D 13.Which network was created to replace ARPANET? A. INWG B. ALOHANET C. IETF D. NSFNET Answer: D 14.Which statement best describes how the internet evolved? A. The internet emerged in the commercial world in the 1980’s following the US military’s adoption of TCP/ IP in 1983. B. The internet evolved from a military to a research to a commercial based network. C. The internet remained primarily a research based network and was only commercially adopted in 2000 when the world wide web was conceived. D. Internet service providers provided the services necessary for military based networks to evolve into research and education based networks. Answer: B 15.Which organization eventually became the standards body for IP and related protocols? A. IEEE B. IETF C. NSFNET D. ITU-T E. APNIC Answer: B 16.What is the name for an organization that provides Internet services to its customers? Nokia 4A0-100 Practice Exam V10.02 | Killtest 4 / 15

5. The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. A. A large corporation. B. An ISP. C. A home based business. D. A content provider. Answer: B 17.The IANA is responsible for: A. Intra-city ISP traffic B. Allocation of the global IP address space C. Allocating IP addresses for residential customer traffic D. Allocating North American IP addresses Answer: B 18.Which of the following is an important advantage of protocol layering? (Choose two) A. Controls distribution of IP addresses. B. Simplifies protocol functionality. C. Isolates changes in lower layers from upper layers. D. Increases protocol operational efficiencies. E. Layering adds to the fragmentation of the data Answer: CD 19.To transmit its segments of data across the network TCP uses the services of which layer? A. Application Layer. B. Transport Layer. C. IP Layer. D. Data Link Layer Answer: C 20.Which of the following are protocols belonging to the OSI suite of protocols? (Choose two) A. OSPF B. BGP C. X.500 D. IS-IS E. Ethernet Nokia 4A0-100 Practice Exam V10.02 | Killtest Answer: CD 21.Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the development of the OSI Reference Model? A. OSI was developed as an alternative, open standard to IBMs SNA model. B. OSI protocols were no longer used after TCP/IP was developed. C. OSI model is much simpler than TCP/IP. D. OSI model is maintained exclusively by the IETF. Answer: A 22.The TCP/IP and OSI models of protocol are similar in that they both have: 5 / 15

6. The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. A. An application and session layer. B. A network layer that provides a universal and consistent forwarding service. C. A transport layer with two protocols. D. An applications services layer with similar layering and service definitions. Answer: C 23.How many of the front access card slots of the Nokia 7750 SR-12 router are dedicated for redundant common equipment? A. 1 B. 2 C. 7 D. 10 Answer: B 24.Which of the following is not supported on the Nokia 7450 ESS? A. Support for IPv6. B. Support for POS. C. Upgrade path to the Nokia 7750 SR. D. Support for IS-IS Answer: C 25.The TiMOS-m.n.Y.Z software image file is software that: A. Contains all the components required to configure and run protocols on the Nokia 7750 SR/7450 ESS. B. Loads the router configuration. C. Transfers the router configuration from the router to the network management system. D. Loads the router software image. Answer: A 26.When entering a command on the Nokia 7750 SR from the Command Line Interface (CLI), what would you use to list all the options for the command? A. ? B. tab character C. space character D. info Answer: A 27.Which of the following describes the Nokia 7750 SR Input/Output Module (IOM)? A. Small optical module available in a variety of formats. B. Contains a CPU for managing the forwarding hardware in each flexible fast path. C. Converts traffic from an external standard format to an internal format. D. Contains the CPU that runs the routing protocol software as well as the switch fabric. Answer: B 28.A typical Nokia 7750 SR Media Dependent Adapter (MDA) interfaces with: Nokia 4A0-100 Practice Exam V10.02 | Killtest 6 / 15

7. The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. A. A Small Form-Factor Pluggable (SFP) module. B. The Central Processing Unit (CPU). C. The Control Plane. D. The Switch Fabric. Answer: A 29.Which of the following best describes the operation of the Media Dependent Adapter (MDA)? A. The MDA contains the flexible fast path complex used for forwarding data. B. Excess data is discarded by the MDA and the remaining data forwarded for QoS processing. C. The MDA buffers data and applies Quality of Service (QoS) to classify and treat the data appropriately. D. The MDA converts data from its incoming physical format into an internal format and provides some minimal buffering. Answer: D 30.What is NOT a function of the IOM? A. It forwards the data to the switch fabric. B. It discards excess data packets. C. It converts the incoming data to an internal format. D. It performs Quality of Service operations and buffers incoming data. Answer: C 31.Which compact flash on a Control/Switch processor of a Nokia 7750 router stores the runtime image and running configuration? A. CF 1 B. CF 2 C. CF 3 D. Both A and B Answer: C 32.One of the tasks of the boot options file (BOF) is to: A. Specify authorization information to control access to the router. B. Define an IP address for the CPM Ethernet port. C. Initialize the hardware. Nokia 4A0-100 Practice Exam V10.02 | Killtest D. Set the date/time for the system. Answer: B 33.Which of the following user interface sessions are accessible through Telnet and Secure Shell (SSH) on the Nokia 7750 SR and 7450 ESS? A. Graphic User Interface (GUI). B. Node Management Terminal Interface (NMTI). C. Command Line Interface (CLI). D. All of the above. Answer: C 7 / 15

8. The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. 34.You are working from a particular Command Line Interface (CLI) context, and want to see the commands available from your current context. What command can you issue to view this information? A. view tree B. tree C. info detail D. info Answer: B 35.What is available for auto completion of commands within the CLI on the Nokia 7750 SR Service Router? A. Type the first letters of the command, then press Ctrl C B. Type the first letters of the command, then press Esc C. Type the first letters of the command, then press Tab D. Type the first letters of the command, then type ? Answer: C 36.Which of the following is a File command in the File System context of the Command Line Interface (CLI)? A. time-display B. help C. type D. terminal Answer: C 37.What must occur for a LAG to become operational? A. There must be multiple ports assigned to the LAG. B. All ports in the LAG must be configured with the same characteristics. C. Auto-negotiation must be enabled on all ports in the LAG. D. All of the above. Answer: B 38.If a 4-port LAG is configured with the option of 'port-threshold 2' and 'action down' what will happen if Nokia 4A0-100 Practice Exam V10.02 | Killtest the total operational links in the LAG is 2? A. If dynamic-cost is enabled it will adjust the cost for routing protocols such as OSPF. B. If dynamic-cost is not enabled it will adjust the cost for routing protocols such as OSPF by dividing the link bandwidth by 2. C. The LAG will be changed to an operational state of 'down'. D. The LAG will function with only 2 ports. There will be no change to the routing metric. Answer: C 39.An Ethernet Local Area Network (LAN) consists of the components shown in the diagram. 8 / 15

9. The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. Nokia 4A0-100 Practice Exam V10.02 | Killtest How many broadcast and collision domains are on this LAN? A. 9 broadcast domains, 3 collision domains. B. 3 broadcast domains, 3 collision domains. C. 3 broadcast domains, 9 collision domains. D. 1 broadcast domain, 9 collision domains. Answer: C 40.As described by the CSMA/CD algorithm, what is the first thing to happen when Host A and Host B begin transmitting data at the same time? A. Host A and B will generate a jam signal. B. Listening hosts will request retransmission. C. Host A or B will retry the transmission. D. A back-off timer is started by Host A or B. Answer: A 41.(Click the Exhibit Button below) 9 / 15

10. The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. Nokia 4A0-100 Practice Exam V10.02 | Killtest which ports the signal should be retransmitted. D. A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 3 destination address, makes a decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted. Answer: C 43.What happens immediately after an Ethernet switch receives an Ethernet frame? A. It records the destination MAC address and the interface on which it arrived. B. It records the source MAC address and the interface on which it arrived. C. It floods the frame out of all its interfaces except the interface on which the frame arrived. D. It transmits the frame out of the appropriate interface. Answer: B An Ethernet Local Area Network (LAN) consists of the following components: - Four 24-port hubs & Two 16-port switches How many broadcast domains are on this LAN? A. 1 B. 2 C. 5 D. 32 Answer: A 42.Which of the following best describes an Ethernet bridge? A. A passive device simply used to connect two or more cables. Does not generate or amplify any signals. B. A device that receives and retransmits a signal out its other ports, but does not do any Layer 2 analysis of the data. C. A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 2 destination address, makes a decision on 10 / 15

11. The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. 44.What is the behavior of a typical Ethernet switch when it receives a frame with a uncast destination MAC address? (Choose two) A. The switch floods the frame out of all ports except the port on which it was received. B. The switch looks in its FDB. If the source address is unknown it discards the frame. C. The switch looks in its FDB. If the destination address is known it forwards the frame out the appropriate interface. D. The switch looks in its FDB. If the destination address is unknown it floods the frame out all ports except the port on which it was received. E. The switch looks in its FDB. If the destination address is unknown it discards the frame. Answer: CD 45.Which technologies can be used with Ethernet switches to achieve redundancy? (Choose two) A. LAG B. OSPF C. RIP D. STP Answer: AD 46.In what type of network is a broadcast storm likely to occur? A. An Ethernet network with redundant paths not running STP. B. An ATM network. C. A SONET network. D. All of the above. Answer: A 47.What problems was Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) primarily designed to solve? (Choose two): A. Providing path redundancy. B. Preventing loops. C. Handling collisions. D. Allowing flooding of multicast traffic. Answer: AB Nokia 4A0-100 Practice Exam V10.02 | Killtest 48.Which of the following is a feature of a VLAN? A. A VLAN allows multiple Ethernet switches to be connected in a single broadcast domain. B. A VLAN allows multiple Ethernet switches to be connected in a single collision domain. C. A VLAN can separate ports on the same switch into different broadcast domains. D. A VLAN can separate ports on the same switch into different collision domains. Answer: C 49.What is required if devices on different VLANs wish to communicate with each other? A. Devices on different VLANs cannot communicate with each other. B. Devices on different VLANs can communicate with each other as long as they are connected to the same switch. 11 / 15

12. The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. C. Devices on different VLANs can communicate with each other as long as the switches they are attached to are connected to each other with an Ethernet connection. D. Devices on different VLANs can communicate with each other if there is an IP router to connect the VLANs. Answer: D 50.A 24 port Ethernet switch is configured with VLAN 100 on ports 1 - 8, VLAN 200 on ports 9 - 16 and VLAN 300 on ports 17 - 24. Which of the following describes the behavior of the switch when a broadcast frame is received on port 1? A. The switch will discard the broadcast frame because there is no specific destination address. B. The switch will flood the broadcast frame on all ports on which the switch has seen frames from attached devices C. The switch will flood the broadcast frame on ports 2 to 8. D. The switch will flood the broadcast frame on all 24 ports. Answer: C 51.The method by which Ethernet frames are associated to a specific VLAN is referred to as: A. Segmenting B. Stacking C. Routing D. Tagging Answer: D 52.What information is used to separate VLANs on a VLAN trunk that connects multiple VLANs? A. VLAN tag. B. IP Header. C. FCS. D. Priority Value. Answer: A 53.Using Q-in-Q Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) stacking, how does a carrier differentiate one customers traffic from that of another? A. The provider edge (PE) switch adds an additional field called a PE tag to the customers Layer 2 data. Nokia 4A0-100 Practice Exam V10.02 | Killtest B. The PE switch replaces the customers VLAN tag with a carrier-assigned tag. C. The PE switch adds a second VLAN tag to identify the customers traffic on the carriers network. D. The PE switch assigns a customer-specific priority label to the customers traffic. Answer: C 54.What is the purpose of the Data Link Layer in the OSI model? A. The Data Link Layer is responsible for encapsulating the packet into a frame for transmission on the transmission media. B. The Data Link Layer is responsible for encapsulating the packet into an IP header and routing the packet. C. The Data Link Layer is responsible for formatting the packet for applications such as JPEG format. 12 / 15

13. The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. D. The Data Link Layer is responsible for timing of the signals on the transmission media Answer: A 55.Which of the following is typically a characteristic of Layer 2 framing? A. Provides a universal addressing scheme to uniquely identify destinations in the network. B. The size of the Layer 2 frame cannot exceed 1518 bytes. C. Provides error checking of the frame contents after transmission. D. All the above. Answer: C 56.Which of the following is NOT an example of a Layer 2 protocol? A. POS B. IP C. ATM D. Frame Relay E. Ethernet Answer: B 57.Why is the address field in a PPP header always set to "11111111"? A. PPP supports multipoint access networks with many stations. The all 1's acts as a broadcast. B. PPP supports multipoint access networks with many stations. The all 1's acts as a multicast. C. PPP supports point-to-point networks only. The address field is fixed. D. PPP supports point-to-point networks only. The address field can change dynamically since every station is assigned a PPP address. Answer: C 58.Which ATM adaptation layer is commonly used for transporting IP datagrams or non-real time data? A. AAL0 B. AAL1 C. AAL2 D. AAL3/4 E. AAL5 Answer: E Nokia 4A0-100 Practice Exam V10.02 | Killtest 59.Which of the following is a characteristic of ATM? A. Application data is transported in 53-byte cells. B. ATM circuits are identified by a VPI/VCI value. C. Provides enhanced QoS support with 5 classes of service. D. Ideal for multiple services on the same physical line. E. All of the above. F. None of the above Answer: E 60.What is the basic unit of framing in SONET and the bit rate for its transmission? 13 / 15

14. The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. A. STS-1 with a bit rate of 1.544 Mbit/s B. STS-1 with a bit rate of 2.048 Mbit/s C. STS-1 with a bit rate of 51.84 Mbit/s D. STS-1 with a bit rate of 155.52 Mbit/s Answer: C 61.What is the basic unit of framing in SDH and the bit rate for its transmission? A. STM-1 with a bit rate of 1.544 Mbit/s B. STM-1 with a bit rate of 2.048 Mbit/s C. STM-1 with a bit rate of 51.84 Mbit/s D. STM-1 with a bit rate of 155.52 Mbit/s Answer: D 62.Which of the following are examples of Time Division Multiplexing (Choose two)? A. Ethernet. B. Token-Ring. C. SONET/SDH. D. E1 carrier. E. PPP Answer: CD 63.How many DS-3 frames can be transported in an OC-3 frame? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Answer: C 64.Who was responsible for developing and publishing the original standard that was used for 10 Mbit/s Ethernet? A. Intel Corporation. B. Digital Equipment Corporation. C. DEC-Intel-Xerox. D. Apple Computer. E. IBM. Answer: C 65.Which Ethernet frame field does the receiver use to verify the integrity of the received bits? A. Destination address B. Frame check sequence C. Preamble D. Length field Answer: B 66.How is Ethernet II different from Ethernet 802.3? Nokia 4A0-100 Practice Exam V10.02 | Killtest 14 / 15

15. The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. A. Ethernet 802.3 can only be used on point-to-point links, while Ethernet II can be used on broadcast networks. B. In Ethernet II the 2 bytes after the source MAC address is used as a type indicator. In Ethernet 802.3 these two bytes indicate the length of the frame. C. In Ethernet 802.3, the 2 bytes after the source MAC address is used as a type indicator. In Ethernet II these two bytes indicate the length of the frame. D. Ethernet II and Ethernet 802.3 are two different names for the same protocol Answer: B 67.In MAC Address 00-20-60-CE-2B-28, which part is the Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI)? A. 2B-28 B. 00-20 C. CE-2B-28 D. 00-20-60 Answer: D 68.Which of the following type of addressing scheme delivers information from one source to all devices who are members of a specific group? A. Anycast. B. Multicast. C. Broadcast. D. Unicast. Answer: B 69.Which of the following is true of Ethernet half-duplex transmission? A. Half-duplex transmission is less efficient because the frame MTU is smaller. B. Half-duplex transmission is only 30-40% efficient because of collisions. C. Ethernet switches support half-duplex transmission only. D. All of the above. Answer: B 70.What is the meaning of carrier sense in the CSMA/CD algorithm? A. The host will retransmit the frame if it detects a collision during transmission. Nokia 4A0-100 Practice Exam V10.02 | Killtest B. The host is able to detect the transmission speed of the Ethernet switch port to which the host is connected. C. The host will only transmit data when it detects that no other devices are transmitting. D. The host will only transmit upon a timer expiry. E. The host will only transmit when it receives the token. Answer: C 15 / 15