Jeopardy

1. Jeopardy Choose a category. You will be given the answer. You must give the correct question. Click to begin.

2. Choose a point value. Choose a point value. Click here for Final Jeopardy

3. Mech & Trauma Part I Mech & Trauma Part II Tissue Response Part I Tissue Response Part II The Foot Part I The Foot Part II 10 Point 10 Point 10 Point 10 Point 10 Point 10 Point 20 Points 20 Points 20 Points 20 Points 20 Points 20 Points 30 Points 30 Points 30 Points 30 Points 30 Points 30 Points 40 Points 40 Points 40 Points 40 Points 40 Points 40 Points 50 Points 50 Points 50 Points 50 Points 50 Points 50 Points

4. A force that, with enough energy, crushes tissue is a force. • A. Compression • B. Tension • C. Shear • D. Torsion

5. A condition that has a gradual onset with diffuse tenderness, inflammation and usually crepitus of a tendon is called: • A. Bursitis • B. Myositis fasciitis • C. Tendinitis • D. Tenosynovitis

6. Which of the following conditions is characterized by pain and discomfort during and immediately after exercise? • A. Acute onset muscle soreness • B. Neuropraxia • C. Delayed onset muscle soreness • D. Myositis Ossificans

7. The two types of muscle spasms are: • A. Cramps and Guarding • B. Clonic and Tonic • C. Tendinitis and Crepitus • D. Contusion and Ecchymosis

8. Calcium deposits in the muscle that result from repeated trauma is: • A. Atrophy • B. Contracture • C. Myositis Ossificans • D. Contusion

9. All of the following are qualities of a synovial joint EXCEPT: • A. Does not move • B. Lined with a synovial membrane • C. Has a joint space • D. Has a capsule or ligaments

10. All of the following are functions of bone EXCEPT: • A. Hematopoiesis • B. Body support • C. Organ protection • D. Mineral production

11. A fracture that occurs on the side opposite to the point at which trauma was initiated is a(n) fracture. • A. Contrecoup • B. Comminuted • C. Impacted • D. Oblique

12. An incomplete break in the bone mostly seen in adolescents is a(n) ____________ fracture. • A. Impacted • B. Transverse • C. Greenstick • D. Atrophy

13. __________ is the property that allows a tissue to return to normal following deformation. • A. Creep • B. Yield Point • C. Plastic • D. Elasticity

14. All of the following are pain sources EXCEPT: • A. Cutaneous • B. Visceral • C. Deep somatic • D. Superficial

15. Which of the following nerve fibers transmit impulses from nocioceptors toward the brain? • A. Afferent fibers • B. Efferent fibers • C. Substantia gelatinosa • D. Central biasing

16. Which of the following are bone-producing cells? • A. Osteoblasts • B. Osteoclasts • C. Osteocytes • D. Osteobytes

17. If there is poor blood supply to a fractured area and a portion of the bone does not heal, this is called: • A. Anoxia • B. Diapedesis • C. Avascular necrosis • D. Synthesis

18. The constant ongoing remodeling of bone is caused by the: • A. Fibroblasts and osteoblasts • B. Monocytes and fibroblasts • C. Osteoblasts and osteoclasts • D. Osteocytes and fibroblasts

19. During the inflammatory response phase there is a period of followed by . • A. Vessel permeability, vasoconstriction • B. Vasoconstriction, vasodilation • C. Vasodilation, vasoconstriction • D. Vasoconstriction, phagocytosis

20. Which of the following chemical mediators is a powerful vasodilator found in mast cells? • A. Necrosin • B. Prostaglandin • C. Leukotaxin • D. Histamine

21. Which of the following signs is not present during the inflammatory response phase? • A. Pain • B. Swelling • C. Loss of function • D. Pallor

22. BONUS • When leukocytes line up along the wall of the blood vessel it is called: • A. Phagocytosis • B. Margination • C. Diapedesis • D. Lukotaxin

23. Which pain control theory involves stimulation of ascending information? • A. Gate control • B. Central Biasing • C. Beta-Endorphin • D. Neural transmission

24. The main supporting ligament of the medial longitudinal arch is: • A. Deltoid • B. Long Plantar Ligament • C. Plantar Aponeurosis • D. Plantar Calcaneonavicular

25. Muscles that produce supination are the: • A. Peroneus Longus and Brevis • B. Tibialis Posterior and Flexor Digitorum Longus • C. Gastrocnemius and Soleus • D. Extensor Digitorum Longus and Brevis

26. Which of the following is the best type of shoe for a person who excessively pronates? • A. Flexible with Rearfoot Control • B. Less Flexible with a High Arch • C. Rigid with a Loose Rearfoot • D. Less Flexible with Rearfoot Control

27. Which of the following bones is the main bearer of weight in the foot? • A. First Metatarsal • B. First Cuneiform • C. Second Cuneiform • D. Second Metatarsal

28. Which of the following is NOT considered part of the stance phase? • A. Initial Contact • B. Pre-Swing • C. Midstance • D. Mid-swing

29. A pes planus foot is associated with • A. Fallen Metatarsal Heads • B. Pronation • C. Tight Achilles Tendon • D. Pes cavus

30. A general term to describe pain in the ball of the foot is: • A. Bursitis • B. Metatarsalgia • C. Morton's Syndrome • D. Exostoses

31. Another name for an abnormally high arch is: • A. Pes Plantaris • B. Pes Equina • C. Pes Cavus • D. Hallus Rigidis

32. When observing and doing special tests, one should always • A. Go to the point of pain • B. Do a bilateral comparison • C. Do each test 3 times • D. Only record the positive signs

33. A condition in which the common plantar nerve becomes entrapped between the 3rd and 4th metatarsal heads producing radiating pain distally is called • A. Morton’s Neuroma • B. Interdigital Syndrome • C. Hammer Toes • D. Hallux Neuritis

34. Final Jeopardy Make your wager

35. What are the 3 phases of the healing process