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MODULE 6. Fajans titration uses _______ indicator. Acid-base Adsorption Metal- ion NOTA. 2. Other name of ferric ammonium sulphate Ferric alum Fe NH 4 (SO 4 ) 2 Fe (NH 4 ) 2 (SO 4 ) 2 A and B.
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Fajans titration uses _______ indicator. • Acid-base • Adsorption • Metal- ion • NOTA
2. Other name of ferric ammonium sulphate • Ferric alum • Fe NH4 (SO4)2 • Fe (NH4)2 (SO4)2 • A and B
3. These are straight filaments arising from the bacterial cell wall, making the bacterium look like porcupine. • Capsule • Endospores • Fimbriae • Flagella
4. Standard solutions are also known as: • Test solutions • Volumetric solutions • Saturated solutions • NOTA
5. The end point in using ferric ammonium sulphate is: • White precipitate • Red-brown color • Pink color • Blue color
6. A structural component of the cell that may enhance virulence of the bacterium include • Capsule • Hyalauronidase • Flagella • Lecitinase
7. Indicator in the Iodometric method of analysis: • KMnO4 • Methyl red TS • Methyl orange TS • Starch TS
8. Assay of diluted HCl is expressed in: • %w/w • %w/v • Both A and B • NOTA
9. The source of H antigen • Flagella • Cell wall • Pilus • Plasmid
10. Residue on Ignition is also called: • Loss on Ignition • Loss on Drying • Acid-insoluble ash • Sulfated ash
11. Limit of moisture in non-aqueous titrimetric analysis is less than: • 0.5 % • 0.05% • 0.2% • 0.02%
12. A vaccine antigen that primarily induces opsonizing antibody is • Hepatitis B virus vaccine • MMR vaccine • Rabies vaccine • H. influenzaetype b vaccine
13. Method II of determining Iodine value is also known as: • Hubl’smethod • Wij’s method • Hanus method • AOTA
14. Standard Operating Procedure (SOP): • Concerned with record keeping • Done to facilitate recall • Step by step method on how to go about a job • AOTA
17. The maximal reaction time for tuberculin reaction • 2-5 hours • 6-10 hours • 12-20 hours • 48-72 hours
16. To determine the total ash, the sample is incinerated at a temperature of 675 + - 25°C. This temperature is represented by: • Very dull red heat • Dull red heat • White red heat • Bright red heat
17. A critical defect that would stop the packaging line operation: • Wrong labels • Inverted labels • Misaligned labels • Smeared
18. Streptomycin is known for • Erythemanododumleprosum • Bone marrow depression • Discoloration of the teeth • Vestibular damage
19. Hydrolysis products of ASA: • Acetic acid + sodium hydroxide • Acetic acid + salicylic acid • Salicylic acid + sodium hydroxide • Sodium salicylate + water C6H4OCOCH3COOH + H2O C6H4OHCOOH + CH3COOH
20. Pyrogentest in vitro: • Colorimeter • Fluorophotometer • Cylinder-plate method • LAL method
21. A spinal fluid specimen from a 28 year old man shows N. meningitides. The DOC is • Pen G • Amikacin • Kanamycin • Ethambutol
22. The type of glass most suitable for parenteral preparation is: • Type I • Type II • Type III • NP
23. A firm’s removal or correction of a distributed product which involves no violation • Drug recall • Stock recovery • Market withdrawal • NOTA
24. Tetracycline may be the DOC for all except: • LGV • Inclusion conjunctivitis • Hospital acquired PNX due to klebsiella • Psittacosis
25. A small volume intravenous solution has a maximum volume of: • 1000 ml • 200 ml • 500 ml • NOTA
26. A dye used in the leaker test: • Methyleneblue • Phenolphthalein • Thymol blue • NOTA
27. Sulfamicacid (H3NSO3) is a primary standard that can be used to standardize sodium hydroxide. What is the molarity if 34.26mL reacts with 0.3337g of sulfamic acid MW=97 • 0.304 • 0.1004 • 0.1005 • 0.403
28. The human papilloma virus is the causative agent of: • Measles • Chancre • Warts • Herpes
29. Bleeding is a main stability problem seen in: • Capsules • Ointments • Emulsions • Tablets
30. This expensive drug is given for dapsone-resistancyM.leprae • Thalidomide • Para-aminosalicylic acid • Clofazime • Rifampicin
31. A spinal fluid specimen from a 28 year old man shows N. meningitides. The DOC is • Pen G • Amikacin • Kanamycin • Ethambutol
32. A sterilizing filter has a pore size of • 0.5 µm • 0.2 µm • 1 µm • NOTA
33. This is an antifungal that acts as by inhibiting lansosterol C14- demethylase, an important enzyme in sterol synthesis • Griseofulvin • Miconazole • Flucytosine • Ampothericin
34. The human papilloma virus is the causative agent of: • Measles • Chancre • Warts • Herpes
35. Clean room classifications are specified in Federal Standard • 211E • 210E • 209E • NOTA
36. Use to prevent one element from interfering in the analysis of another element • Masking agent • Demaskingagent • Both a and b • NOTA
37. A type of relationship in which one species of organism uses the body of a larger species as its physical environment and makes use of that environment to acquire nutrients. • Commensalism • Mutualism • Parasitism • Symbiosis
38. The Philippines belongs to what climactic zone: • I • II • III • IV
39. Describe how close a measure value is to the true value • Accuracy • Precision • Range • Standard deviation
40. The minimum time period covered by the data for accelerated stability studies is: • 6 months • 12 months • 18 months • NOTA
41. Disintegration is an essential attribute of this dosage form: • Plain coated tablet • Hard gelatin capsule • Chewable tablet • AOTA
42. Tetanus, botulism, diphtheria • Immediate hypersensitivity • Cytotoxic antibody • Immune complex • Delayed hypersensitivity • NOTA
43. Which is not a biological indicator in the validation of a moist heat sterilizer? • Bacillus stearothermophilus • Bacillus subtilis • Bacillus coagulans • NOTA
44. The acceptable pH level of water used for pharmaceutical compounding is • Between 6.0 and 7.0 • Between 5.0 and 7.0 • Between 7.0 and 8.0 • NOTA
45. Treatment of herpectic conjunctivitis • Streptomycin • Iododeoxyuridine • Rifampicin • Nalidixic acid
46. This is given together with Isoniazid for patients with TB to prevent neurologic side effects: • Rifampicin • Ethambutol • Pyridoxine • Pyrazinamide
47. The type of glass most suitable for parenteral preparations is • Type I • Type II • Type III • NP