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“Were the tongues at Corinth “real languages,” or something else? To put the matter in technical terms, is the phenomenon of 1 Corinthians an instance of xenoglossia (that is, speaking in unlearned human languages) or glossolalia (that is, speaking in verbal patterns that cannot be identified with any human language)? This is an extraordinarily difficult question to answer convincingly on either side, despite the dogmatic claims made by many proponents on each side.” (bold and underline added)
Tongues • Real Tongues are not gibberish. • Act 2 and Acts 14 are significantly different
“In general, a special gift of the Spirit, not merely the natural ability to understand another language, was necessary for the interpretation of tongues.”
“The tight connection Paul presupposes between the content of the tongues and the intelligible result of the gift of interpretation demands that we conclude the tongues in Corinth, as Paul understood them, bore cognitive content.” Carson pg. 87
“there is no indication that the Apostle Paul ever communicated to the Corinthians any distinction about linguistically different types of tongues, or about “real” vs. “false” tongues. Rather, Paul’s method was to affirm that tongues in general are a gift of the Spirit (1Cor. 12:10,30), and then to distinguish between a proper and an improper use (1 Cor. 14:26-33a, 3940).” …Hence, for the Corinthian, anything that sounded like speaking in tongues and functioned like speaking in tongues was “speaking in tongues”.”(bold and italic added) http://www.frame-poythress.org/the-nature-of-corinthian-glossolalia-possible-options/
Paul regarded tongues as valid privately and publicly Tongues • Real Tongues are not gibberish. • Act 2 and Acts 14 are significantly different
Conclusions: • Private changes maybe? • Publicly no changes. • Sensitivity/humility toward those of a differing viewpoint.