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Luther Burbank produced over 800 varieties of plants by

Luther Burbank produced over 800 varieties of plants by. genetic engineering. transformation. selective breeding. DNA sequencing. Which of the following have been produced by selective breeding?. horse breeds cat breeds dog breeds all of the above. Selective breeding produces.

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Luther Burbank produced over 800 varieties of plants by

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  1. Luther Burbank produced over 800 varieties of plants by • genetic engineering. • transformation. • selective breeding. • DNA sequencing.

  2. Which of the following have been produced by selective breeding? • horse breeds • cat breeds • dog breeds • all of the above

  3. Selective breeding produces • more offspring. • fewer offspring. • desired traits in offspring. • transgenic organisms.

  4. Which of the following is NOT an example of selective breeding? • allowing only the best milk-producing cows to reproduce • crossing disease-resistant plants with plants that produce high food yields • mating cats that have long hair with cats that have long tails • allowing dogs to mate only once a year

  5. Which of the following is most likely to bring together two recessive alleles for a genetic defect? • inbreeding • hybridization • genetic engineering • transformation

  6. To make a new line of plants, Burbank used the process of • inbreeding. • hybridization. • transformation. • genetic engineering.

  7. The crossing of buffalo and cattle to produce beefalo is an example of • inbreeding. • hybridization. • genetic engineering. • transformation.

  8. Which of the following statements is NOT true? • Inbreeding and hybridization are opposite processes. • A hybrid plant has all the characteristics of both its parents. • Inbreeding can produce an offspring that has a defect that neither parent shows. • Hybridization is used to produce new varieties of plants and animals.

  9. Scientists produced oil-eating bacteria by • making bacteria polyploid. • inbreeding bacteria. • inducing mutations in bacteria. • hybridizing bacteria.

  10. What is the ultimate source of genetic variability? • inbreeding • radiation • hybridization • mutations

  11. Breeders induce mutations in organisms to • increase diversity in populations. • make organisms more alike. • avoid selective breeding. • produce organisms with undesirable characteristics.

  12. Which of the following includes all the others? • hybridization • inbreeding • selective breeding • induced mutations

  13. Polyploidy instantly results in a new plant species because it • changes a species’ number of chromosomes. • produces a hardier species. • causes mutations. • all of the above

  14. Mutations are useful in selective breeding because they • help maintain the desired characteristics of animal breeds. • are usually found in hybrids. • are usually beneficial. • can be used to enhance the process of hybridization.

  15. What does Figure 13–1 show? • gel electrophoresis • DNA sequencing • a restriction enzyme producing a DNA fragment • polymerase chain reaction

  16. In Figure 13–1, between which nucleotides is the DNA cut? • adenine and thymine • cytosine and guanine • thymine and cytosine • adenine and guanine

  17. One function of gel electrophoresis is to • separate DNA fragments. • cut DNA. • recombine DNA. • extract DNA.

  18. The process of making changes in the DNA code of a living organism is called • selective breeding. • genetic engineering. • inbreeding. • hybridization.

  19. A DNA molecule produced by combining DNA from different sources is known as • a mutant. • a hybrid. • a polyploid. • recombinant DNA.

  20. Knowing the sequence of an organism’s DNA allows researchers to • reproduce the organism. • mutate the DNA. • study specific genes. • cut the DNA.

  21. Analyzing DNA by gel electrophoresis allows researchers to • identify similarities and differences in the genomes of different kinds of organisms. • determine whether a particular allele of a gene is dominant or recessive. • compare the phenotypes of different organisms. • cut DNA with restriction enzymes.

  22. On an electrophoresis gel, band B is closer to the positive end of the gel than is band A. Which of the following statements is true? • Band B is more negatively charged than band A. • Band B moved faster than band A. • Band A is smaller than band B. • Band B consists of larger DNA fragments than does band A.

  23. Genetic engineering involves • reading a DNA sequence. • editing a DNA sequence. • reinserting DNA into living organisms. • all of the above

  24. Which of the following are NOT used to read DNA sequences? • nucleotides • gels • fluorescent dyes • double-stranded DNA molecules

  25. Suppose a restriction enzyme recognizes the six-base sequencein a double strand of DNA. Between which two nucleotides on each strand would the enzyme have to cut to produce a fragment with sticky ends that are four bases long? • GC • CT • AA • AG

  26. If two DNA samples showed an identical pattern and thickness of bands produced by gel electrophoresis, the samples contained • the same amount of DNA. • fragments of the same size. • the same DNA molecules. • all of the above

  27. During transformation, • a prokaryote is changed into a eukaryote. • a cell takes in DNA from outside the cell. • foreign DNA is inserted into a plasmid. • a cell is mutated.

  28. Scientists can transform plant cells by • using the bacterium Agrobacterium tumefaciens. • removing the plant cell walls and then mixing the cells with DNA. • injecting DNA into the plant cells. • all of the above

  29. A recombinant plasmid gets inside a bacterial cell by • inducing mutations. • injecting itself into the cell. • transformation. • recombining with the cell.

  30. Which of the following includes all the others inside it? • plasmid • transformed bacterium • foreign gene • recombinant DNA

  31. Which of the following steps is NOT essential in producing recombinant DNA? • Cut out a piece of DNA from a DNA molecule. • Splice a piece of DNA into DNA from another organism. • Use a restriction enzyme to form sticky ends in DNA. • Read the DNA sequence of the piece of DNA to be cut and spliced.

  32. A gene that makes it possible to distinguish bacteria that carry a plasmid (and the foreign DNA) from those that don’t is called a(an) • resistance gene. • antibiotic. • genetic marker. • clone.

  33. Which of the following is often used as a genetic marker? • a foreign gene • a gene for antibiotic resistance • a DNA sequence that serves as a bacterial origin of replication • a nucleotide labeled with a fluorescent dye

  34. The transformation of a plant cell is successful if • the plasmid that entered the cell reproduces inside the cell. • the foreign DNA is integrated into one of the cell’s chromosomes. • the cell reproduces. • a plasmid has entered the cell.

  35. Which of the following is an example of successful transformation? • injection of bacterial DNA into plant cells • a defective gene in a cell being replaced with a normal gene • bacterial cells taking in plasmids that have a genetic marker • none of the above

  36. Suppose a bacterial culture were mixed with recombinant plasmids containing a gene for resistance to penicillin. The bacterial culture was then treated with penicillin. Which of the following statements is NOT true? • Those bacteria that contain the plasmid will survive. • The penicillin will kill the bacteria that were transformed. • The gene for antibiotic resistance is expressed in the bacteria that survive. • Those bacteria that are successfully transformed will survive.

  37. What kind of technique do scientists use to make transgenic organisms? • hybridization • inbreeding • inducing of mutations • genetic engineering

  38. What is an advantage of using transgenic bacteria to produce human proteins? • The human proteins produced by transgenic bacteria work better than those produced by humans. • Transgenic bacteria can produce human proteins in large amounts. • The human proteins produced by transgenic bacteria last longer than those produced by humans. • Transgenic bacteria can produce human proteins used to make plastics.

  39. What has been an advantage of producing transgenic plants? • increasing the food supply • using more pesticides • producing clones • studying human genes

  40. To produce transgenic bacteria that make insulin, which of the following steps did scientists have to take first? • Insert the human insulin gene into a plasmid. • Extract the insulin from the bacterial culture. • Use a restriction enzyme to cut out the insulin gene from human DNA. • Transform bacteria with the recombinant plasmid.

  41. What are scientists more likely to learn from transgenic animals than from transgenic bacteria or transgenic plants? • the structure of human proteins • the process of cloning • how human genes function • how plasmids reproduce

  42. The Scottish scientist Ian Wilmut cloned a • bacterium. • sheep. • plant. • cow.

  43. Which of the following is a clone? • the adult female sheep whose DNA was used to produce Dolly • a transgenic mouse • a bacterium taken from a bacterial colony • the tobacco plant with the luciferase gene

  44. What kind of cell or cells were used to make Dolly? • body cell only • egg cell only • egg cell and sperm cell • body cell and egg cell

  45. Why is Dolly a clone? • The source of her DNA was a single body cell. • The DNA molecules in all her cells are identical. • She was produced using the DNA from an adult’s egg cell. • She is genetically identical to her offspring.

  46. People have used selective breeding to produce many different dog breeds. _________________________ • True • False

  47. Without genetic engineering, horses would not have been domesticated. ______________________________ • True • False

  48. Without selective breeding, dogs today would probably be less similar. _________________________ • True • False

  49. Hybrids are often hardier than either of their parents. _________________________ • True • False

  50. Animal breeders maintain cat and dog breeds by the process of hybridization. _________________________ • True • False

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