1 / 54

Anesthesia 1 Final Exam Review

Anesthesia 1 Final Exam Review. 55 multiple choice 3 calculations scantron. Preanesthetic Time Period. 5 questions. ASA Risk Assessment . Class 1 Class 2 Class 3 Class 4 Class 5. Slight risk, minor disease High risk, significantly compromised Moribund Normal, healthy

carson
Download Presentation

Anesthesia 1 Final Exam Review

An Image/Link below is provided (as is) to download presentation Download Policy: Content on the Website is provided to you AS IS for your information and personal use and may not be sold / licensed / shared on other websites without getting consent from its author. Content is provided to you AS IS for your information and personal use only. Download presentation by click this link. While downloading, if for some reason you are not able to download a presentation, the publisher may have deleted the file from their server. During download, if you can't get a presentation, the file might be deleted by the publisher.

E N D

Presentation Transcript

  1. Anesthesia 1Final Exam Review 55 multiple choice 3 calculations scantron

  2. Preanesthetic Time Period 5 questions

  3. ASA Risk Assessment • Class 1 • Class 2 • Class 3 • Class 4 • Class 5 • Slight risk, minor disease • High risk, significantly compromised • Moribund • Normal, healthy • Moderate risk, obvious disease

  4. You shine a light into the right eye of a dog and the left pupil constricts. What is the best explanation? • A. head trauma • B. neuropathy • C. normal reflex • D. this is not possible

  5. Preanesthetics 10 questions

  6. Preanesthetics 1. Anticholinergics 2. Tranquilizers and Sedatives phenothiazines benzodiazepines alpha-2 agonists 3. Opioids

  7. What are anticholinergics primarily used for? • A. To sedate patients • B. To relieve anxiety • C. To relieve pain • D. To “protect the heart”

  8. Premedications • Acepromazine • Rompun • Valium • Morphine • Glycopyrrolate • Benzodiazepine • Narcotic • Anticholinergic • Phenothiazine • Alpha-2 Agonist

  9. Premedications • Butorphanol • Atropine • Hydromorphone • Dexdomitor • Chlorpromazine • Zolazepam • Benzodiazepine • Narcotic • Anticholinergic • Phenothiazine • Alpha-2 Agonist

  10. Reversal Agents • Yohimbine • Narcan • Antisedan • Flumazinel • Nalbuphine • Valium • Fentanyl • Xylazine • Dexmedetomidine • Morphine

  11. List some effects of anticholinergics. • Prevent bradycardia • May cause tachycardia at high doses • Mydriasis • Blocks stimulation of vagus nerve

  12. Induction Agents and Injectables 10 questions

  13. Injectables • Barbiturates • Propofol • Dissociatives • Etomidate • Guafenesin • Locals • Neuromuscular blocking agents

  14. The combination drug Telazol contains • A. Diazepam and ketamine • B. Diazepam and xylazine • C. Zolazepam and tiletamine • D. xylazine and tiletamine

  15. Which of the following would not provide any analgesic effects? • A. dexdomitor • B. narcan • C. lidocaine • D. xylazine

  16. Which of the following is not an example of an analgesic? • A. tetracaine • B. diprivan • C. N2O • D. butorphanol

  17. Caudal epidural administration of lidocaine in the dog is • A. Useful to prevent movement • B. Not to be used for cesarean section • C. An excellent caudal analgesic • D. An old procedure with little value in veterinary anesthesia today

  18. Injectables • Thiopental • Pancuronium • Propofol • Bupivicaine • Etomidate • Guaifenesin • Tiletamine • Dissociative • Local • Muscle relaxant • Non-barbiturate anesthetic • Barbiturate • NMB • Heart friendly induction

  19. Which of the following is not a barbiturate? • A. pentobarbital • B. thiopental • C. phenobarbital • D. etomidate

  20. Injectable Anesthetics • Used to induce anesthesia • Given 15-20 minutes after a pre-medication • Ideal characteristics: Rapid onset and recovery Non-toxic Lack of adverse cardiovascular and respiratory effects Rapid metabolism Analgesic effects Muscle relaxation • When possible, they should be given to effect.

  21. All could be used for epidural anesthesia except: • A. lidocaine • B. morphine • C. ketamine

  22. Inhalants 8 questions

  23. Advantages of Inhalants • Concentration of anesthesia in the body is changed by adjusting the delivered concentration to the patient • This is done by adjusting the vaporizer on the machine. • Inhalants are eliminated by the lungs on exhale, and have minimal metabolism. • At appropriate concentrations, they provide analgesia by creating unconsciousness • They can be used as maintenance agents and duration time is not an issue

  24. Use of nitrous oxide in anesthesia • A. Decreases the amount of inhalant anesthetic required • B. Slows the induction process • C. Has no effect on the time or amount of anesthetic required • D. Increases the amount of inhalation anesthetic required

  25. The ideal inhalant anesthetic would have all of the following characteristics except • A. Low vapor pressure • B. High solubility coefficient • C. Low MAC • D. Provide good muscle relaxation

  26. Biotransformation • 0.2% • 2-5% • 0.02 • 20-46% • Desflurane • Halothane • Isoflurane • Sevoflurane

  27. Variables • MAC • Solubility Coefficient • Vapor Pressure • Delivery method • Induction recovery rates • Potency

  28. Monitoring 8 questions

  29. Pulse oximeters give an estimate of • A. Percentage of hemoglobin saturation with oxygen in arterial blood • B. Respiratory rate • C. Cardiac output • D. Oxygen content of arterial blood

  30. Equipment • Pulse oximeter • Esophageal stethoscope • EKG • Capnograph • Blood Gas • Blood Pressure • HR and rhythm • Expired CO2 • Blood pH • Systolic and diastolic • HR and RR • Saturation of hemoglobin

  31. Parameters • 1. vital signs HR, RR and depth, MM, CRT, pulse strength, BP and temperature • 2. reflexes (involuntary response to stimuli) Palpebral, corneal, pedal, swallowing, laryngeal, PLR • 3. other indicators Movement, eye position, pupil size, muscle tone, nystagmus, secretions, response to surgical stimuli * The most reliable sign of inadequate depth is patient movement.

  32. Stages and Planes • Stage 1 • Stage 2 • Stage 3, plane 1 • Stage 3, plane 2 • Stage 3, plane 3 • Stage 3, plane 4 • Stage 4 • Excitement phase • Overdose • Early overdose • Too light • Too deep • Optimum • Voluntary movement

  33. Endotracheal Intubation 6 questions

  34. Endotracheal Tube Types • Red rubber • Vinyl • Silicone • Anode • Cheap • Least irritating • High volume, low pressure cuff • Low volume, high pressure cuff • Armored • Can see respirations

  35. Intubation • Confirming proper placement • Equipment used • Tube size • Cuff inflation • Extubation

  36. Which of the following best describes a silicone endotracheal tube? • A. Relatively inexpensive, flexible, low volume and high pressure cuff and a tendency to dry and crack over time • B. More expensive, less irritating to tissues with a high volume and low pressure cuff • C. Transparent, stiffer tube comprised of PVC requiring manual deflation of cuff • D. Contains a coil of metal or nylon embedded into the rubber to resist collapse

  37. Equipment 8 questions

  38. Machine • 8 questions on machine • Know these parts • O2 and N2O cylinders • O2 pressure gauge • Vaporizer • O2 flush valve • Charcoal canisters • CO2 canisters • Manometer • Breathing bag • Circuits (rebreathing and non-rebreathing) • Scavenging systems

  39. The oxygen pressure gauge • A. indicates how much oxygen is in the cylinder • B. indicates how much oxygen in L/min is delivered to the patient • C. reduces pressure of oxygen entering the low pressure system • D. all of the above

  40. A.

  41. A non-precision vaporizer would be placed • A. out of the circle • B. in the circle • C. in the high pressure portion of the system • D. either in or out of the circle

  42. B. non precision are also known as VIC

  43. Which of the following machine parts will remove carbon dioxide from the system? • A. scavenger system • B. charcoal canister • C. soda lyme canister • D. humid vent

  44. C.

  45. Flow meter setting are read in • A. mmHg • B. L/min • C. cm/H2O • D. %

  46. B.

  47. The manometer is used to evaluate • A. pressure of oxygen in cylinder • B. pressure in the breathing circuit • C. inhalant and oxygen flow rate • D. pressure in the oxygen line

  48. B.

  49. A non-rebreather is used when the patient • A. is larger than 80 pounds • B. suffering from alkalosis • C. under anesthesia for brief procedures only • D. is smaller

  50. D.

More Related