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We factored the Klein-Gordon equation into. then found solutions for:. Free particle solution to Dirac’s equation. ( x ) = u e - i x p /h. u ( p ). cp z E - mc 2 c(p x + i p y ) E - mc 2. c(p x - i p y ) E - mc 2 - cp z E - mc 2. 1 0. 0 1. c(p x - i p y ) E+mc 2 - cp z
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We factored the Klein-Gordon equation into then found solutions for:
Free particle solution to Dirac’s equation (x) = ue-ixp/h u(p) cpz E-mc2 c(px+ipy) E-mc2 c(px-ipy) E-mc2 -cpz E-mc2 1 0 0 1 c(px-ipy) E+mc2 -cpz E+mc2 cpz E+mc2 c(px+ipy) E+mc2 1 0 1 0
What if we tried to solve: We would find 4 nearly identical Dirac spinors with the uA, uB (matter/antimatter entries) interchanged: E+mc2 E-mc2
In general, anyROTATION or LORENTZ Transformation mixes vector components: space-time coordinates not the spinor components! amn= sin, cos, 1, 0 forR = , , 1, 0 for If we want to preserve “lengths” and “distances”
Now watch this: = I The transformation matrices must be ORTHOGONAL! So must mean
So must mean = (a-1) (a-1)
Finally chain rule (4 terms!) or
In general we can expect that any DIRAC SPINOR (x) when transformed by a or R matrix: (x) '(x') ( its spinor components each a function of the space-time 4-vector (ct;r) ) is STILL expressible as a linear combination of the components in the initial (un“rotated”) basis: 4 space-time coordinates '(x') = S(x) column vector of the 4 spinor components How does the DIRAC EQUATION transform? Is IT invariant?
Multiple (both sides) through, from the left with: S-1 S-1 which is invariant provided
or † Warning! S is not unitary: Taking hermitian conjugate: † † † † † † Recall:g 0g mg 0= g m† Multiply both sides by: 0[ ] 0 = 0[ ] 0 † † since:g 0g 0= I † † † † obviously inverses!
† † ( ) (S 0S† 0) (S 0S† 0) = (S 0S† 0) whereS, 0, do not commute S 0S† 0= I 0S† 0= S-1
What will be preserved under transformations? What are the invariant quantities? † (' )†' = (S)†S = †S†S = † † cannot be the probability density! =† 0 Defining: as the “adjoint” spinor then notice: † † † † =†0 0S†0S S-1 (x) (x) =†0 = (x) (x) (x) (x)