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Doctors Dilemma MD ACP Scientific Meeting February 10, 2007 Final Heat. Single Jeopardy. Double Jeopardy. Final Jeopardy. Date. SINGLE Jeopardy. Critical Care. GI. Nephrology. Radiology. Endocrine. 100. 100. 100. 100. 100. 200. 200. 200. 200. 200. 300. 300. 300. 300.

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  1. Doctors Dilemma MD ACP Scientific Meeting February 10, 2007 Final Heat Single Jeopardy Double Jeopardy Final Jeopardy Date

  2. SINGLE Jeopardy Critical Care GI Nephrology Radiology Endocrine 100 100 100 100 100 200 200 200 200 200 300 300 300 300 300 400 400 400 400 400 500 500 500 500 500 Final Jeopardy Double Jeopardy

  3. Critical Care 100Q This Pressor has effects on the alpha-adrenergic system only. Question Critical Care 100

  4. Critical Care 100A What is Neosynephrine or Phenylephrine? Go To Single Quizitor Answer Critical Care 100

  5. Critical Care 200Q Acute lung injury is defined by this Pao2/Fio2 ratio. Critical Care Question 200

  6. Critical Care 200A What is 200-300? Go To Single Quizitor Critical Care Answer 200

  7. Critical Care 300Q Below this negative inspiratory force (NIF) is a criteria for intubation in neuromuscular disorders. Critical Care Question 300

  8. Critical Care 300A What is 20? Go To Single Quizitor Critical Care Answer 300

  9. Critical Care 400Q This substance, released by mast cells, may be measured when the diagnosis of anaphylaxis is uncertain. Critical Care Question 400

  10. Critical Care 400A What is Tryptase? Go To Single Quizitor Critical Care Answer 400

  11. Critical Care 500Q The PROWESS, ENHANCE, and MERCURY trials were designed to study the safety and efficacy of this medication. Critical Care Question 500

  12. Critical Care 500A What is Xigris or Drotrecogin Alpha? Go To Single Quizitor Critical Care Answer 500

  13. GI 100Q Name the preferred therapy and duration for eradication of H. Pylori in penicillin allergic patients. GI 100 Question

  14. GI 100A What is a proton pump inhibitor, Clarithromycin 500mg BID, and Metronidazole 500mg BID for two weeks? Go To Single Quizitor GI 100 Answer

  15. GI 200Q The most frequent cause of esophageal infection in persons of all risk categories including the normal host. GI 200 Question

  16. GI 200A What is Candida Albicans? Go To Single Quizitor GI 200 Answer

  17. GI 300Q The Mayo End-Stage Liver Disease (MELD) score is a marker of disease severity and mortality in persons with chronic alcohol liver disease. Name the three variables that are required to calculate this score. GI 300 Question

  18. GI 300A What are Total Bilirubin, INR, and Creatinine? Go To Single Quizitor GI 300 Answer

  19. GI 400Q Name the syndrome that is an uncommon complication of cholelithiasis that is caused by an impacted stone in either they cystic duct or the neck of the gallbladder. GI 400 Question

  20. GI 400A What is Mirizzi’s Syndrome? Go To Single Quizitor GI 400 Answer

  21. GI 500Q Name the hepatotoxic mushroom that when injested, can cause fulminant hepatic failure. GI 500 Question

  22. GI 500A What is Amanita Phalloides? Go To Single Quizitor GI 500 Answer

  23. Nephrology 100Q The most common cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in African American Adults. Nephrology Question 100

  24. Nephrology 100A What is Focal Segmental Glomerular Sclerosis (FSGS)? Go To Single Quizitor Nephrology Answer 100

  25. Nephrology 200Q The “nickname” for the dysmorphic RBC’s in a urine analysis with glomerulonephritis. Question Nephrology 200

  26. Nephrology 200A What are Mickey Mouse Cells? Go To Single Quizitor Nephrology Answer 200

  27. Nephrology 300Q A patient with analgesic nephropathy with persistent hematuria should be evaluated by urine cytology for this condition. Nephrology Question 300

  28. Nephrology 300A What is Transitional Cell Carinoma of the urinary tract? Go To Single Quizitor Nephrology Answer 300

  29. Nephrology 400Q A footprint for the diagnosis of cryoglobinemia in the setting of glomerulopathy is suggested by these complement levels. Nephrology Question 400

  30. Nephrology 400A What are low C4 and Normal or Low C3 levels? Go To Single Quizitor Nephrology Answer 400

  31. Nephrology 500Q Name the two non-renal conditions that may increase Cystatin C levels. Nephrology Question 500

  32. Nephrology 500A What are thyroid diorders and use of dexamethasone? Go To Single Quizitor Nephrology Answer 500

  33. Radiology 100Q Stricture of the sigmoid colon due to carcinoma as seen here is called.. 100 Question Radiology

  34. Radiology 100A What is an Apple Core Lesion? Go To Single Quizitor Radiology 100 Answer

  35. Radiology 200Q These aneurysms are saccular intracranial aneurysms that are congenital and characteristically occur at points where arteries bifurcate. Radiology 200 Question

  36. Radiology 200A What are Berry Aneurysms? Go To Single Quizitor Radiology 200 Answer

  37. Radiology 300Q This sign refers to an abnormally shaped fetal head seen at antenatal ultrasound performed during the second trimester. This sign is a marker for open spina bifida. Radiology 300 Question

  38. Radiology 300A What is LEMON sign? The cranial vault appears lemon-shaped in axial cross section because the frontal bones are flattened or concave Go To Single Quizitor Radiology 300 Answer

  39. Radiology 400Q This refers to the clinical and radiologic appearance of diffuse fusiform swelling of a digit due to soft-tissue inflammation from underlying arthritis or dactylitis. Radiology 400 Question

  40. Radiology 400A What is Sausage Digit? Go To Single Quizitor Radiology 400 Answer

  41. Radiology 500Q This type of calcification of the mediastinal and Hilar Lymph nodes occurs in silicosis. Radiology 500 Question

  42. Radiology 500A What is Egg Shell Calcification? Go To Single Quizitor Radiology 500 Answer

  43. Endocrine 100Q The acronym UKPDS stands for… Endocrine Question 100

  44. Endocrine 100A What is the United Kingdom Prospective Diabetes Study? Go To Single Quizitor Endocrine Answer 100

  45. Endocrine 200Q The most common cause of Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH). Endocrine Question 200

  46. Endocrine 200A What is CYP21A2 (21-hydroxylase) deficiency? Go To Single Quizitor Endocrine Answer 200

  47. Endocrine 300Q The drug treatment for idiopathic hypercalciuria. Endocrine Question 300

  48. Endocrine 300A What are thiazide diuretics? Go To Single Quizitor Endocrine Answer 300

  49. Endocrine 400Q Name three causes for Pseudocushing’s Syndrome. Endocrine Question 400

  50. Endocrine 400A • Obesity • Severe Depression • Severe Physical Stress (ie: Sepsis) • Chronic Alcoholism Go To Single Quizitor Endocrine Answer 400

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