A- Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles respectively.

#4085. What standard minimums are required to list an airport as an alternate on an IFR flight plan if the airport has VOR approach only? A- Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles respectively. B- Ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles respectively. C- Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 600 feet and 2 miles, respectively.

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#4475. Uncontrolled airspace is that airspace where A- ATC does not control air traffic. B- ATC controls only IFR flights which originate in controlled airspace and terminate in controlled airspace. C- the minimum visibility for flight is 1 mile.

#4060. When filing a composite flight plan where the first portion of the flight is IFR, which fix(es) should be indicated on the flight plan form? A- All points of transition from one airway to another, fixes defining direct route segments, and the clearance limit fix. B- Only the fix where you plan to terminate the IFR portion of the flight. C- Only those compulsory reporting points on the IFR route segment.

#4280. At which altitude and location on V573 would you expect the navigational signal of the HOT VOR/DME to be unreliable? See fig.34. A- 2,600 feet at MARKI intersection. B- 4,000 feet at ELMMO intersection. C- 3,000 feet at APINE intersection.

#4080. What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMS? A- To provide the latest information on the status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities for scheduled broadcasts. B- To issue notices for all airports and navigation facilities in the shortest possible time. C- To advise of changes in flight data which affect instrument approach procedures, aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publication.

#4460. What action should you take if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped with two VOR receivers: the No. 1 receiver has Omni/Localizer/Glide Slope capability, and the No. 2 has only Omni. A- Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. B- Continue the flight as cleared; no report required. C- Continue the approach and request a VOR or NDB approach.

#4515. What is the function of the Great Falls RCO? Yellow Stone vicinity, see fig 91. A- Long range communications outlet for Great Falls Center. B- Remote communications outlet for Great Falls FSS. C- Satellite FSS controlled by Great Falls FSS with limited service.

#4392. What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “…CRUISE SIX THOUSAND…”? A- The pilot must maintain 6,000 feet until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure. B- Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot’s discretion. C- The pilot may utilize any altitude from the MEA/MOCA to 6,000 feet, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.

#4605. During the en route phase of an IFR flight, the pilot is advised “Radar service terminated.” What action is appropriate? A- Set transponder to code 1200. B- Resume normal position reporting. C- Activate the IDENT feature of the transponder to re-establish radar contact.

#4456. Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact? A- Entering instrument meteorological conditions. B- When leaving final approach fix inbound on final approach. C- Correcting an E.T.A. any time a previous E.T.A. is in error in excess of 2 minutes.

#4071. For which speed variation should you notify ATC? A- When the groundspeed changes more than 5 knots. B- When the average true airspeed changes 5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater. C- Any time the groundspeed changes 10 MPH.

#4711. Where may you use a surveillance approach? A- At any airport that has an approach control. B- At any airport which has radar service. C- At airports for which civil radar instrument approach minimums have been published.

#4758. If during a VFR practice instrument approach, Radar Approach Control assigns an altitude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds, what action should be taken? A- Enter the clouds, since ATC authorization for practice approaches is considered an IFR clearance. B- Avoid the clouds and inform ATC that altitude/heading will not permit VFR. C- Abandon the approach.

#4297. What is the difference in elevation (in feet MSL) between the airport elevation and the TDZE for RWY 36L?See fig 42a A- 15 feet. B- 18 feet. C- 22 feet.

#4357. Which runway and landing environment lighting is available for approach and landing on RWY 6 at Bradley International? See fig 73, Legend 19. A- HIRL, REIL, and VASI. B- HIRL and VASI. C- ALSF2 and HIRL.

#4796. The primary purpose of runway end identifier lights, installed at many airfields, is to provide A- rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility. B- a warning of the final 3,000 feet of runway remaining as viewed from the takeoff or approach position. C- rapid identification of the primary runway during reduced visibility.

#4792. What is the distance (B) from the beginning of the runway to the touchdown zone marker? See fig 137. A- 250 feet.B- 500 feet. C- 750 feet.

A- Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles respectively.