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Weighted Average Cost of Capital. And equivalent approaches. Exam quickie. A corporation is near bankruptcy. Why do the managers invest in bad risks?. Answer on bad risks. Managers represent equity … at least they are supposed to.
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Weighted Average Cost of Capital And equivalent approaches
Exam quickie • A corporation is near bankruptcy. Why do the managers invest in bad risks?
Answer on bad risks • Managers represent equity …at least they are supposed to. • Risk gives them a chance to pull out of bankruptcy. Equity gets the gain. • A bad outcome leaves them still bankrupt. Debt suffers the loss.
Capital Budgeting for the Levered Firm • Adjusted Present Value • Flows to Equity • Weighted Average Cost of Capital • APV Example
Reading note • Skip sections 17.5 through 17.8. • Pages 444-451.
Adjusted-Present-Value (APV) • NPV for an unlevered firm • NPVF = net present value of financing • APV = NPV + NPVF
Unlevered NPV • Unlevered cash flows = CF from operations - Capital Spending - Added NWC - corporate taxes for unlevered firm. • Discount rate: r0 • PVUCF: PV of unlevered cash flows • NPV = PVUCF - Initial investment
Net present value of financing side effects • PV of Tax Subsidy to Debt • Costs of Issuing New Securities • The Costs of Financial Distress • Subsidies to Debt Financing
Flow-to-Equity (FTE) • LCF = UCF - (1 - TC) x rB x B • PVLCF = Present value of LCF • FTE = PVLCF - Portion of initial investment from equity • Required return on levered equity (rS) • rS = r0 + B/SL x (1 - TC) x (r0 - rB)
Weighted-Average-Cost-of-Capital • Discount rate: rWACC • PVUCF: PV of Unlevered Cash Flows • Value = PVUCF - Initial investment for entire project
Summary: APV, FTE, and WACC APV WACC FTE Initial Investment All All Equity Portion Cash Flows UCF UCF LCF Discount Rates r0 rWACC rS PV of financing Yes No No Which is best? • Use WACC and FTE when the debt ratio is constant • Use APV when the level of debt is known.
Example p. 437: Project • Cash inflows 500 • Cash costs 360 • Operating income 140 • Corporate tax 47.6 • Unlevered cash flow 92.4 • Cost of project 475
APV, maintaining B/S = 1/3 • Physical asset of project is discounted at .2. • NPV = 92.4/.2 - 475 = 462 - 475 = -13 • Borrowing 126.2295 (from B/S = 1/3) • rB = .1 • NPVF = TC x B = 42.918 • APV = -13 + 42.918 = 29.918
APV recap • Value = 475 + 29.918 = 504.918 • Debt = - 126.2295 • Equity = 378.6885 • Debt/Equity = 1/3 • Debt/(Debt + Equity) = 1/4
Flow to Equity • Cash inflows 500 • Cash costs - 360 • Interest - 12.62295 • Income after interest 127.37705 • Corporate tax - 43.3082 • Levered cash flow 84.06885
FTE (continued) • Cost 475 • Borrowing - 126.2295 • Cost to equity 348.7705
FTE: Required return on equity • rS = r0 +(B/S)(1-TC)(r0-rB) • B/S = 1/3 • rS = .2 +(1/3)(.66)(.2-.1) = .222
FTE valuation • NPV = • - 348.7705 + 84.06885/.222 • = 29.918 • Same as in APV method. • E = 84.06885/.222 = 378.6885 • Now, same thing with WACC.
Find rWACC • rWACC = (S/(S+B))rS+(B/(B+S))(1-TC)rB • =(3/4)(.222) + (1/4)(.66)(.1) • = .183
WACC method continued • NPV = • - 475 + 92.4/.183 • = 29.918 • All methods give the same thing.
Example: Start-up, all debt financed. • Cost of project = 30 • CF of project 10 before tax, 6.6 after. • Discount rate for an all equity firm .2. • NPV = 6.6/.2 - 30 = 3
More APV example • Tax shield from borrowing 30 at rB=.1= .1(30).34 = 1.02. • Discounted value = NPVF = 10.2. • APV = 3 + 10.2 = 13.2.
Leverage of the start-up • Not 100%. • Value is 30 + 13.2. • B = 30, S = 13.2 • S/(B+S) = .305555555 • (can’t expect a round number here)
Example continued. Do it again • Another project, same as before. • Retain debt-equity ratio. • rWACC = (S/(B+S))rS + (B/(B+S))rB(1-TC) • rWACC = .30555555rS +.694444 rB (.66) • rS=r0 +(B/S)(1-TC)(r0-rB) • rWACC= .15277777
Value, using rWACC • NPV = -30 + 6.6/.1527777 • =13.2 • Lesson: WACC works when the debt equity ratio is established before the project and retained thereafter. • APV works when the project changes the debt equity ratio
Exam quickie • Complete the following statement and explain briefly: nothing matters in finance except __________ and _________.
Answer: taxes and bankruptcy • Explanation. Because of homemade leverage, capital structure doesn’t matter in the absence of taxes and bankruptcy. • Taxes matter because debt generates tax shields. • Bankruptcy matters because financial distress damages the assets of the firm.