510 likes | 517 Views
Starter: In your Starter Section of your Notebook copy and answer the following questions. 1 . A scientist uses graphs, tables and charts to publish results of his research. What type of research was he probably performing? a. descriptive research b. quantitative research
E N D
Starter: In your Starter Section of your Notebook copy and answer the following questions. 1. A scientist uses graphs, tables and charts to publish results of his research. What type of research was he probably performing? a. descriptive research b. quantitative research c. graphical research d. none of the above 2. Name 2 types of data gathered in experiments. 3. Which statement best explains why every experiment includes a control group? a. the control group represents the normal conditions and is used for comparison b. the control group represents the variable that is being tested
4. Which statement best describes a scientific question? a. it is asked by the majority of people on Earth b. it has a single answer that never changes c. it can be answered through observation and analysis 5. How are science and technology related? a. technology is a branch of natural science b. science is a branch of technology c. advances in science may lead to advances in technology and vice versa 6. What is a statement that summarizes a pattern or facts found in nature? a. a scientific law b. a fact c. a scientific theory d. a hypothesis
7. To simplify the results of an experiment, many researchers hold all variables constant except for one. They then compare the results with respect to that one variable. This type of experiment is known as a ________ experiment. a. variable b. multi-factor c. controlled d. none of the above • The scientific method involves some basic facets in which scientific inquiry is a constant feature. This is also called ________. a. observation b. prediction c. Description d. control • Which of the following procedures is considered a scientific method? • Analysis of data b. making a hypothesis c. Observing d. all of the above
List the 8 characteristics of living organisms. • How do you determine total magnification using a microscope? • What is the difference in biogenesis and spontaneous generation?
13. All the different populations in an area make up the a) biosphere b) ecosystem c) community 14. All the living and non-living factors in an area make up the: a) population b) ecosystem c) community • Links in a food chain are represented by ____. a) biomass b) energy c) trophic levels • Organisms that use energy from the sun to manufacture their own food are called ________. a) producers b) consumers c) heterotrophs
17. A group of animals that live in the same area and can interbreed and produce fertile offspring is called a (n) _____________________ 18. The study of organisms and their interactions with the environment is known as ___________________________ 19. All of the different populations living in an area (plants, rabbits, coyotes...) is called the _________________________ 20. An ecosystem includes all the living and ___________ factors in an area.
21. Heterotrophs are also called __________. 22. The main source of energy is the ______. 23. A model that shows the direction of energy flow through an ecosystem is a ____ _____ or a ______ _______. 24. An organism that only eats plants is called a _________. On a food web, this organism is also called a _________ consumer.
25. What human activities cause carbon to be released into the atmosphere? 26. An ecosystem can support a [ small number / large number ] of top predators. 27. In a pyramid of numbers, what type of organism makes up the base of the pyramid? [ producers / consumers / predators ] 28. When plants lose water from their leaves, it is called __________.
29. By which process is CO2 removed from the atmosphere? a) combustion b) decomposition c) photosynthesis 30. In the carbon cycle, which of the following transfers carbon from animals to plants? • carbon dioxide b) sugars c) water 31. In general, which tropic level has the most energy available to it? • primary consumer b) decomposer c) producer 32. Type of symbiosis where both organisms benefit? a) mutualism b) parasitism c) commensalism
33. Three types of symbiosis are _____, ______ and ______. 34. A type of symbiosis where both organisms benefit is called __________. 35. When one organism benefits and the other is harmed, this is called ________. 36. Type of succession that takes place where there has never been any soil is [primary succession / secondary succession]. 37. The first organisms to inhabit an area are called _______ _______.
38. Limiting factors can be _____ (living) or ______ (non living). 39. Two examples of factors that limit the growth of a population are ________ and ________. 40. The maximum number of organisms an environment can support is its ______ ______. 41. Populations that have unlimited resources exhibit _______ growth (J-shaped curve). 42. Populations that reach carrying capacity and slow down exhibit ______growth (S-shaped curve).
43. Which of the following is a nonrenewable resource? a. Natural gas b. Wheat crop c. Game animals d. Marsh reeds 44 Name two ways of conserving nonrenewable resources. 45. Name two ways humans can contribute to sustainable development. 46. As human population grows we use more resources. If this continues what might become a limiting factor for the human population?
When it rains it is called __________________. • When liquid water turns into water vapor it is called _________________. • What element makes up the majority of the Earth’s atmosphere? • On a food web, secondary consumers are eaten by __________ consumers. 51. On a food web, arrows represent ________________.
52. What element must be present for something to be considered organic? 53. Things that don’t come from living things are called ___________. 54. Where are acids found on the pH scale? 55. Where are bases found on the pH scale?
56. Which proteins in the cell speed up chemical reactions? 57. Which biomolecules are fat molecules that are used as a long term energy source? 58. What are the subunits of carbohydrates?
59. The various enzymes in our bodies are _______. a. Lipids b. Carbohydrates c. Nucleotides d. Proteins 60. A very strong base might have a pH of ___________. a. 3 b. 5 c. 9 d. 13 61. Two examples of nucleic acids are __________. 62. Subunits of proteins are ______________.
63. The main components of the cell’s plasma membrane are: a. proteins b. cytokines c. phosphates d. phospholipids 64. Which statement best describes the function of the nucleus? a. control center of the cell and stores genetic information b. contains enzymes to break down certain materials c. site of ribosome synthesis 65. How does a eukaryotic organism differ from a prokaryotic organism? a. a prokaryotic organism is not made up of cells b. a prokaryotic organism does not contain genetic information c. the cells of prokaryotic organisms do not have membrane-bound organelles
66. In all cells, which organelle is the site of cellular respiration? a. chloroplast b. vacuole c. ribosomes d. mitochondria 67. In plant cells, which organelle is the site of photosynthesis? a. vacuole b. cell wall c. chloroplast d. golgi body 68. The basic structure within the cell involved in protein synthesis is the _______. a. ribosome b. endoplasmic reticulum c. golgi apparatus d. vacuole
69. Cells are like miniature factories. Inside the cell are small structures which carry out the various function of the cell. These structures inside the cell are known as _______. • organs b. organelles c. protoplasm d. intracells 70. What is the function of a cell’s selectively permeable membrane? a. to regulate energy production in the cell b. to keep mitochondria from using nuclear material c. to control materials entering and leaving the cell 71. What best describes a eukaryotic cell? • it does not contain membrane-bound organelles b. all contain cell walls c. it does not contain a nucleus d. it contains membrane-bound organelles
72. What is the function of ribosomes? • What is an example of a specialized cell? 74. What are the 2 types of stem cells?
75. How can you distinguish between a eukaryotic and a prokaryotic cell? • What are the main components of the plasma membrane? 77. What are 2 structures plant cells have that animal cells do not?
What structure in plant cells is the site of photosynthesis? • What structure is responsible for maintaining a cell’s homeostasis? • List 3 structures found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
81. Students placed saltwater aquarium plants into a container of distilled water. What happens to the cells of the plant? a. the plant cells will swell b. the plant cells will shrink c. the plant cells will separate d. the plant cells will remain the same 82. Which of the following statements concerning diffusion and active transport is correct? a. Both diffusion and active transport require cell energy. b. Neither diffusion nor active transport requires cells energy. c. Diffusion requires cell energy while active transport does not. d. Active transport requires cell energy while diffusion does not.
During osmosis, which direction does water flow? 84. Does osmosis require cells to use energy? 85. For each of the following types of solutions, tell which direction the water will flow and what will happen to the cell. • Cell placed in an isotonic solution • Cell placed in hypotonic solution • Cell placed in a hypertonic solution 86. Copy the following types of transport and indicate whether or not energy is required for each. • Simple Diffusion • Facilitated Diffusion • Osmosis • Active Transport
87. If a plant is placed in complete darkness for a long period of time it will die. Why? a. chlorophyll degrades b. plants need energy from light c. plants cannot digest sugar d. plants need light to activate its DNA 88. A green pigment that traps energy from sunlight is _____. a. carotenoid b. ATP c. chlorophyll d. thylakoid membranes 89. Energy from sunlight is trapped by chlorophyll located in the ____. a. citric acid cycle b. mitochondria c. electron transport chain d. thylakoid membranes 90. Which of the following statements best describes photosynthesis? a. the products of photosynthesis are sugar and oxygen b. photosynthesis occurs in the mitochondria c. sunlight is not necessary for photosynthesis d. the products of photosynthesis are sugar and water
91. Within a plant cell, the glucose formed as a result of photosynthesis may be used directly as: a. an energy source during cellular respiration b. an absorber of radiant energy c. an enzyme for intracellular digestion d. a source of molecular oxygen 92. Which of the following is a product of cellular respiration? a. oxygen b. glucose c. carbon dioxide d. sunlight 93. The energy available to the cell is stored in which part of the ATP molecule? a. phosphate tail b. sugar c. nucleotide d. ribose 94. Which of the following are the raw materials for photosynthesis? a. carbon dioxide and water b. glucose, water and carbon dioxide c. water and oxygen d. glucose, oxygen and water
95. By which process are carbon dioxide and water converted to carbohydrates? a. transpiration b. respiration c. fermentation d. photosynthesis 96. What are the reactants of cellular respiration? a. oxygen and glucose b. water, ATP and carbon dioxide c. carbon dioxide and glucose d. ATP, oxygen and water 97. What is the main source of carbon used during the process of photosynthesis? a. carbon dioxide from the atmosphere b. carbon released by the oxidation of fatty acids c. carbon released during the process of digestion d. carbon dioxide made by plants 98. What process occurs in the mitochondria to provide energy for the cell? a. active transport b. Calvin cycle c. protein synthesis d. cellular respiration
99. Which of the strands below is the complement to the segment GCATCCGA of a DNA molecule? a. CCTAGGC b. GCATCCGA c. GGUAGGCU d. CGTAGGCT 100. The subunits of DNA are _______. • lipids b. nucleotides c. sugars d. nitrogen bases 101. Which event takes place first during DNA replication? a. tRNA links to an amino acid b. DNA molecule “unzips” along weak hydrogen bonds c. free nucleotides are bonded together in the correct sequence d. a single-stranded RNA molecule is formed 102. Thymine makes up 32% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA. What percentage of the nucleotides, therefore is guanine? a. 36% b. 32% c. 18% d. 16%
103. What type of RNA is responsible for bringing amino acids to the ribosome for protein synthesis? a. messenger RNA b. transfer RNA c. ribosomal RNA d. mitochondrial RNA 104. The messenger RNA will carry the DNA’s instructions out of the nucleus to which of the following? a. vacuole b. mitochondria c. chloroplast d. ribosome 105. If a portion of DNA strand has the base sequence ATGCGA, what will be the base sequence of the mRNA strand transcribed? a. ATGCGA b. TUCGCT c. UACGCU d. TACGCT 106. Which type of RNA transmits information from DNA during protein synthesis? a. transfer RNA b. messenger RNA c. ribosomal RNA d. mitochondrial RNA
107. Which statement best describes how DNA and RNA are different? a. RNA exists in 4 structural forms b. RNA contains deoxyribose rather than ribose c. RNA contains uracil rather than thymine 108. The genetic information is coded in DNA by __. a. the regular alteration of sugar and phosphate molecules b. the 3-dimensional structure of the double helix c. the sequence of the nucleotides 109. The process of transcription involves production of a. mRNA from a DNA template b. 2 new DNA strands from the original 2 strands c. an amino acid chain from an mRNA template 110. In a portion of a gene, the nitrogenous base sequence is TCGAAT. Which nitrogenous base sequence would normally be found bonded to this section of the gene? a. ACGTAA b. AGCTTA c. TTAGCA d. UGCAAU
111. Which statement best describes the process of translation? a. assembling protein molecules from the information encoded in mRNA b. assembling protein molecules from the information encoded in tRNA c. making RNA molecules from DNA molecules already manufactured d. making DNA molecules from RNA molecules already manufactured 112 Which part of the cell does transcription take place? a. nucleus b. ribosome c. cytoplasm d. ER 113. Which of the following is the correct order for making a protein? a. RNA→DNA→Protein b. DNA→ Protein→ RNA c. DNA→RNA→Protein d. Protein→RNA→DNA 114. A codon is represented by _____ nitrogen bases. a. 5 b. 2 c. 4 d. 3
115. The genetic material inherited from parents is: a. DNA b. RNA c. proteins d. nucleic acids 116. All of the following are results of mutations except which one? a. change in DNA sequence b. cancer c. change in amino acid sequence d. all are results of mutations 117. How many nitrogen bases does it take to code for 3 amino acids? a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d. 1
118. The end result of mitosis is the production of a. 1 cell with twice as many organelles as the parent cell b. 2 cells with half as many chromosomes as the parent c. 4 cells with twice as much DNA as the parent cell d. 2 cells identical to the parent cell 119. Among the following, the term that includes the others is a. interphase b. nuclear division c. mitosis d. cell cycle 120. The diploid number in the human body is __. a. 23 b. 46 c. 2n d. n 121. The longest phase of the cell cycle is ____. a. prophase b. interphase c. metaphase d. mitosis
122. In humans, meiosis produces: a. 2 daughter cells with 46 chromosomes b. 2 daughter cells with 23 chromosomes c. 4 daughter cells with 46 chromosomes d. 4 daughter cells with 23 chromosomes 123. Crossing over in organisms results in _______. a. increased variation b. genetic isolation c. identical gametes d. dominant inheritance 124. What is true about any two normal gametes from a human male parent? a. each has a diploid number of chromosomes b. their chromosomes are exactly the same c. they have the same number of chromosomes 125. A cell has undergone a meiotic division cycle. In order for the cell to achieve a diploid state, what must occur? a. cleavage b. fertilization c. meiosis d. mitosis
126. Round = R; Wrinkled = r Cross a homozygous wrinkled with a heterozygous round. Show punnett square, percentages and ratios 127. Incomplete Dominance: Cross a pink flower with a red flower. Show punnett square. How many are red? White? Pink? 128. Co-Dominance: Cross a Black and white chicken with a black rooster. Show punnett square. How many are white? Black? Black and white?
129. Cross a female who is a carrier with a male who is colorblind. What percent of their kids will be colorblind? 130. Cross a hemophiliac female with a normal male. What percent of their kids will be normal? 131. If a pure black cow and a pure white are crossed and they produce all offspring that are black and white, what is this an example of? a. incomplete dominance b. pure dominance c. inherited dominance d. codominance
132. In a genetics laboratory, two heterozygous tall plants are crossed. If tall is dominant over short, what are the expected phenotypic results? a. 100% tall b. 75% tall, 25% short c. 50% tall, 50 % short d. 25% tall, 75% short 133. Mr. Jones has blood type A and Mrs. Jones has blood type AB. What is the probability that they will have a child with blood type A if both of Mr. Jones’ parents were AB? a. 0% b. 25% c. 50% d. 100% 134. If a pure red rose and a pure white rose are crossed and produce all pink offspring, what is this an example of? a. incomplete dominance b. recessive dominance c. codominance d. polyploidy 135. Cross a heterozygous B male with a type O female. What are the possible phenotypes of their kids?
136. Blue is dominant to green. 2 heterozygous parents are crossed. Assuming that there is no incomplete dominance or codominance, what would be the ratio of blue to green offspring? a. 2:1 b. 1:2:1 c. 3:1 d. 1:3 137. Hemophilia is a recessive, sex-linked trait. A healthy mother and a hemophiliac father have a hemophiliac daughter. Which of the following statements is true? a. all of their children will be hemophiliacs b. none of their sons will be hemophiliacs c. they can have a healthy daughter who is not a carrier d. they can have a healthy son 138. The chart below shows the genotype of 4 babies with regard to blood type. Which baby couldn’t be the child of parents who both have type AB blood?
139. Which statement best describes 2 offspring created as a result of sexual reproduction? a. the offspring will be genetically identical to 1 of the parents b. the offspring will be genetically similar to both parents c. the offspring will have a different # of chromosomes than either of the parents 140. Which statement best describes asexual reproduction? a. asexual reproduction occurs only during meiosis b. asexual reproduction occurs only in plants c. asexual reproduction creates genetically different offspring d. asexual reproduction creates genetically identical offspring 141. If the cell produced as a result of meiosis each contain 16 chromosomes, how many chromosomes would be present after sexual reproduction? a. 8 b. 16 c. 24 d. 32 142. A Labrador Retriever can be black, yellow, or brown. Which of these processes makes it possible for 2 Labradors to produce offspring of different colors? a. meiosis b. mitosis c. osmosis d. binary fission
143. Give two examples of asexual reproduction. 144. How is mitosis a part of asexual reproduction? 145. Where does variation in organisms come from? 146. What do each of the symbols in a pedigree mean?
147. What are the 4 possible blood type phenotypes? 148. What are the 6 possible genotypes for blood type? 149. Which blood type is an example of codominance? 150. What is an example of a polygenic trait?
151. The process of natural selection acts on variations in __. a. a trait among members of a population b the characteristics of an organism over the course of its life c. the number of chromosomes in individuals of the same species 152. The process of evolution is characterized by ______. a. the appearance of new alleles within a population b. gradual accumulation of adaptations over time c. gene flow between different populations of the same species 153. Which statement best represents the main part of Darwin’s theory of natural selection? a. there is little to no variation within populations b. organisms will compete for unlimited resources in a given environment c. organisms with characteristics most suited to their environment will survive
154. Which of the following statements about mutations is (are) true? I. All mutations are harmful II. All mutations occur randomly III. All mutations cause organisms to evolve. a. I only b. II only c. III only d. II and III 155. The science of classification is called _____. a. Botany b. Taxonomy c. Zoology d. Genetics 156. The evolutionary history of an organism is its ___. a. biodiversity b. extinction c. taxonomy d. phylogeny
157. What is the correct order of the 7 levels of classification, listing them from broadest to narrowest? a. species, genus, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom b. kingdom, phylum, class, family, order, genus, species c. genus, species, family, order, class, kingdom, phylum d. kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species 158. A student identifies an unknown cell as being eukaryotic. Which of the following did she most likely identify in order to draw this conclusion? a. nucleus b. cell wall c. chloroplast d. cell membrane 159. What could you state about the organisms Quercus alba and Quercus phellos by examining their names? a. they are the same organism b. they are not related c. they are closely related d. they are distantly related
160. Which description best summarizes the characteristics of the first organisms that lived on Earth? a. unicellular prokaryotes b. multicellular prokaryotes c. multicellular prokaryotes d. multicellular eukaryotes 161. In which group do all of the organisms belong to the same Kingdom? a. bacterium, moss, geranium b. bacterium, amoeba, algae c. paramecium, amoeba, algae d. yeast, mushrooms, maple tree 162. What characteristics do eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells have in common? a. Both use mitochondria for cellular respiration b. Both use ribosomes for protein synthesis c. Both use chloroplasts for photosynthesis d. Both use vacuoles for storage
163. A group of related families is ___. a. phylum b. order c. class d. family 164. What happens when two species coevolve? a. one species causes the other to become extinct b. two species change to become one new species c. one species separates into two different species d. each species affects the evolution of the other
165. Explain the difference between biogenesis and spontaneous generation 166. Describe what the atmosphere on early Earth was like. 167. Where did the first living organisms originate? 168. What type of organisms were these? 169. What did these organisms evolve into?
170. Which is not direct evidence for evolution? • fossil record b. DNA similarities c. climate change d. karyotype comparisons 171. Which type of selection favors both extremes of a phenotype in a population? a. Disruptive b. directional c. stabilizing d. natural 172. The phenotype of average individuals is favored in ___ selection. • Stabilizing b. directional c. speciation d. natural 173. A multi-step tool used to determine the scientific identity of an organism is know as ________. • Cladogram b. Phylogenic tree c. Dichotomous key 174. Which of the following can be attributed to rapid evolution in response to chemical overuse? a. Sterility b. death c. resistance d. exponential growth
1. Match these organelles with their functions: a. Nucleus 1. Sites of photosynthesis, contain chlorophyll. b. Plasma Membrane 2. Powerhouse of the cell, where cell respiration occurs. c. Cell Wall 3. Brain of the cell, contains the DNA & chromosomes. d. Mitochondria 4. Sites of protein synthesis, where mRNA & tRNA meet. e. Vacuoles 5. Cell’s outer boundary, lipids & proteins, semipermeable. f. Chloroplasts 6. Found in plants only to maintain structure, not semipermeable. g. Ribosomes 7. Large in plants, small in animals, used for storage. 2. Match these: a. energy production and use 1. Wastes stored in vacuole are sent to plasma membrane. b. transport of molecules 2. Plasma membrane allows entrance, cytoplasm circulates. c. disposal of waste 3. Mitochondria makes ATP, ribosome uses it in protein synthesis. d. synthesis of new molecules 4. Nucleus sends mRNA to ribosome, tRNA brings AA to put protein together.