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Valuation of Long Term Securities (bonds and stocks). MBA Shanghai 2013 W eek 4. 邦保罗. What has Mickey Mouse got to do with this?. In february 2004 Comcast put a hostile take over bid on Disney Comcast offered about $ 54 billion for Disney
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Valuation of Long Term Securities (bonds and stocks) MBA Shanghai 2013 Week 4 邦保罗
What has Mickey Mouse got to do with this? • In february 2004 Comcast put a hostile take over bid on Disney • Comcast offered about $ 54 billion for Disney • Many professionals said the bid was far too low and therefore could not be successful • Comcast claimed it offered a 10% premium for the shareholders • But since it was a share for share deal Comcast paid for it with its own shares • After the bid Disney shares raised 10% and Comcast shares fell about 10% at that time the premium evaporated and Comcast actually offered a price for Disney at a discount… • The deal did not effectuate as you imagine • The board of Disney refused to accept it and the shareholders of course also refused… • In the meantime a fight at the top was taking place between the cousin of Walt Disney and the CEO Michael Eisner…(see the picture) • Eisner won then but has now agreed to leave Disney per 2006 for early retirement…goodbye Mr. Eisner…who saved Disney when it was about to go bankrupt… Bye bye Mr. Eisner…
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Valuation • Liquidation value: Sell as separated asset from ongoing operations (low) for instance when a company is bankrupt • Book Value: Shareholders equity in the balance sheet of a company • Market Value: Share Price * number of (common) shares outstanding • Intrinsic Value: Long Term Free Cash Flow/Cost of Capital
Valuation of Bonds • A Bond is a confession of debt paper from the government or a company • Each Bond has : • A face value (say $ 1,000) • A Coupon rate (say 10% per year) • A maturity ( for example 9 years) • A cost of capital (return that the investor wants for this specific paper (say 12%) This is called the cost of debt (Kd) • Calculating the value of a bond means calculating the cash flows that the bond will generate over its life and discounting at 12% Put a value on mickey?
So the value is: • V=$100/(1+12%)+$100/(1+12%)^2+… +$100/(1+12%)^9+$1000/(1+12%)^9= $ 893,80 • So an investor should pay not more then $ 893,80 to buy this bond • The bond is sold at a discount (lower then its face value of $ 1000) • Note that all the coupons are discounted at 12% and at the end of the life time the amount of the “debt” ($ 1000) will be paid back Thanks!
But if Kd= 8% instead of 12% • V=$100/(1+8%)+$100/(1+8%)^2+… +$100/(1+8%)^9+$1000/(1+8%)^9= $ 1124,79 • The bond is sold at a premium: So now the bond has a value higher then its face value… Donald’s Uncle
“When will this bond sell at face value (at par)?” • If the coupon rate offered by the issuer of the bond (10%) is equal to the return (Kd) the investor demands; so if Kd=10% • The return offered (coupon rate) is equal to the required Kd so the investor is willing to pay the full amount of $ 1000 • Check it out!
Perpetual bonds • Perpetual means that they will give coupon income forever… • If the coupon is 10% and Kd=12% • The value of such a bond is:V= I/Kd with I=the amount of the coupon • Value= $100/12%= $ 833,33 Investor: Have lunch or be lunch!
Zero coupon bond • Some bonds do not pay a coupon • They simply mature after several years • What is the value of such a bond? • Say Kd=12% and maturity is 10 yrs. • Value= $1000/(1+12%)^10= $ 322 • You should pay only pay $ 322 for such a bond Zero Coupon Bond ?
Most bonds issued in the US • Pay coupon interest twice a year (semi annually) • A 10% bond with half year coupons and 12 years maturity with Kd=14% and a face value of $ 1000 can be valued at: • V=$50/(1+ 14%/2)^1 +50/(1+14%/2)^2+…..+……. +$50/(1+14%/2)^24+$1000/(1+14%/2)^24= $ 770,45 Demo; 2 coupons per year!
Preferred stock valuation • Preferred stock offers preferred dividend • A perpetual stream of fixed dividends will make the valuation look like a perp[etual bond: • Value= Dp (yearly amount of dividends)/Kp ( the return the investor wants on this preferred stock) • So if the dividend is $ 9 per share of $1000 and Kp= 14% then Value per preferred share= Dp/Kp=$9/14%=$ 64,29
The most important valuation is the one for common stock • If a share will be hold forever the value is the DCF of all future dividends • Assumed that the yearly dividends are the same and that Ke= the return that an investor wants on these common shares: • Value per share= D1/(1+Ke)+D2/(1+Ke)^2…+Dn/(1+Ke)^n • So if D1=D2=D3=…=Dn= $10 • And Ke is 10% Value/share= $10/10%=$ 100
But in reality • Companies pay different dividends every year • Shareholders hold shares for a short time (not forever) • In this case value/share is (assume the shareholder hold the shares 2 years : • Value/share=D1/(1+Ke)+D2/(1+Ke)^2+ P2/(1+Ke)^2 where P2= the value of the share at the end of the second year Be bullish!
Dividend constant growth • If dividend grows every year by a certain % then D2=D1(1+g%) where g% is the growth percentage and D1=D0(1+g%) • Now value/share=D0(1+g%)/(1+ke%)+D0(1+g%)^2/(1+Ke%)^2+…+Dn(1+g%)^n/(1+Ke)^n • This can be simplified to: • Value/share=D1/(Ke%-g%) proof! • Note: assume Ke%>g% and D0(1+g)^n/(1+Ke)^n converges to 0 (nil) for this reason Bear market?
Homework assignment • Go to Yahoo Finance • Find out if your team’s company pays dividend and how much per share • What are the earnings per share (latest figures) • What is the pay out ratio (dividends per share/earnings per share) • Find out how much dividend the company has paid in the past per share • Find g% (the dividend growth) • Assume that Ke=10% • Use the dividend growth model to calculate the value per share and compare it with today’s share price of your company • Does the share market values your company shares higher or lower then the dividend growth model? • Why do you think this is the case?
Earnings Multiplier approach • If b= the retention rate (% of earnings that the company wants to retain i.e. does not want to pay out as dividends) • Then (1-b)= the pay out ratio (% the company will pay out in dividends) • Assume: (1-b)=D1/E1 D1= expected dividend per share of period 1 and E1=expected earnings per share of period 1 • Rewrite: D1=(1-b)*E1 • Then if: Value/share=D1/(Ke%-g%) substitute D1=(1-b)*E1 • And Value/Share V= (1-b)*E1/(Ke%-g%) • And V/E1 (earnings multiplier) or P/E= (1-b)/(Ke%-g%) • Say the retention rate is 40% g%=6% and Ke%=14% and E1=$ 6.67 then the value/share is: V=0.60*$6.67/(14%-6%)= $ 50 • Earnings Multiplier=(1-40%)/(14%-6%)= 7.5 times • Value/share=Expected earnings/share*Earnings Multiplier (PE ration)= $ 6.67*7.5= $ 50 Stock market talk…
Rate of Return (yield) • The Yield to Maturity (YTM) for bonds is: • Say you know today’s price of a bond • You know also the coupon rate and how many times the coupon will pay per year • But you would like to calculate at which Kd (yield) the present value of all coupons and the $ 1000 at maturity will result in todays price; this Kd is the “Yield “
Illustration • A Bond can be bought today for $ 761 • The coupon is $80 (8%) per year • Maturity is 12 years • So we want to find Kd in: • $761=$80/(1+Kd)^1+$80/(1+Kd)^2+…+$80/(1+Kd)^12 • We can find it with trial and error or with the IRR% function in Excel…(treat $761 as initia; cash out) • Kd=11.828% Jump!
Note that • If interest rates rise bond prices fall • If interest rates fall bond prices increase • So interest rates and bond prices move in opposite directions Climb!
End of chapter So where are you with your assignments?