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NCLEX Pharmacology Quiz on Hormonal and Reproductive Drugs. 1. Which of the following is a contraindication to the administration of growth hormone?.
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1. Which of the following is a contraindication to the administration of growth hormone? A. The height of the child is under 4 feet.B. The child’s age is between 5 and 6.C. The epiphyseal shaft is open.D. The epiphyseal shaft is closed. 1. The correct answer is : D. The epiphyseal shaft is closed. A closed epiphyseal shaft is a contraindication for administration of growth hormone. There are no exact height or age requirements for the administration of growth hormone.
2. Miley has been taking growth hormones for a quite sometime now. As a recipient of the agent, she should be aware that a side effect of growth hormone is: A. HyperthyroidismB. Soft tissue hypertrophyC. DwarfismD. Increased tumor growth 2. The correct answer is : D. Increased tumor growth Growth hormone may increase the size of a tumor if one is present. Hypothyroidism and soft tissue atrophy are the side effects. Dwarfism is the indication for therapy.
3. Vasopressin is which of the following pituitary hormone? A. OxytocinB. ACTHC. Antidiuretic hormoneD. Desmopressin acetate 3. The correct answer is : C. Antidiuretic hormone Vasopressin is antidiuretic hormone.
4. Which of the following drugs will decrease the effects of vasopressin? A. lithium (Lithane)B. digoxin (Lanoxin)C. penicillin (Pen-Vee-K)D. azithromycin (Zithromax 4. The correct answer is : A. lithium (Lithane) Lithium is known to decrease the effects of vasopressin. Lithium is a salt, and antidiuretic hormone acts on the water that influences the sodium/water balance.
5. When caring for a patient taking parathyroid medication, which of the following nursing interventions is a priority? A. Monitor serum calcium levels.B. Evaluate bowel function.C. Measure serum acid phosphatase.D. Check for side effects. 5. The correct answer is : A. Monitor serum calcium levels. Serum calcium levels are altered when pathology exists in this gland. This is because the gland regulates the balance of calcium and phosphorus.
6. Drew is diagnosed with Type I diabetes mellitus. As a nurse taking care of the patient, you should know that in his condition: A. Insulin is produced but is malformed.B. The beta cells of the pancreas stop producing insulin.C. The patient cannot be treated.D. Diagnosis is made in patients over age 50. 6. The correct answer is : B. The beta cells of the pancreas stop producing insulin. In type I diabetes mellitus, the beta cells stop producing insulin completely. There is no such pathophysiologic process as malformed insulin. patients with type I diabetes can be treated with insulin. The diagnosis can be made in patients at any age.
7. Which of the following statements involving Type II diabetes mellitus is correct? A. It involves inefficient insulin production.B. It involves cessation of Insulin production by the beta cells of the pancreas.C. It involves increased insulin receptor responsiveness.D. It involves the infant patient. 7. The correct answer is : A. It involves inefficient insulin production. In type II diabetes mellitus, insulin is produced in insufficient amounts along with reduced insulin receptor responsiveness. In type II diabetes mellitus, the beta cells do produce insulin but in inadequate amounts. There is decreased rather than increased insulin responsiveness.
8. A major side effect of insulin use that can be life threatening is: A. HyperglycemiaB. Stomach upsetC. HypoglycemiaD. Tremors 8. The correct answer is : C. Hypoglycemia The action of insulin will lower glucose levels, which may prove fatal if levels drop too low.
9. Nurse Casey is studying about insulin administration. She should be knowledgeable that regular insulin: A. Is slow actingB. Is used IVC. Is a suspended insulinD. Peaks in 6 to 12 hours 9. The correct answer is : B. Is used IV Regular insulin is the only insulin preparation that can be administered IV. Regular insulin is rapid acting. It is a crystalline zinc preparation and peaks in 2 to 4 hours.
10. Signs of hypoglycemia include: A. Fruity breath, thirst, flushed skinB. Diarrhea, itching, hypertensionC. Anxiety, weakness, pallor, sweatingD. Muscle ache, fever, thirst 10. The correct answer is : C. Anxiety, weakness, pallor, sweating These are signs of hypoglycemia, along with restlessness, chills, confusion, nausea, hunger, tachycardia, weakness, or headache. Choice A are signs of hyperglycemia.
11. Estrogen is given in the management of all of the following conditions except: A. Dysfunctional uterine bleedingB. Primary hypogonadismC. Suppression of ovulationD. Endometrial carcinoma 11. The correct answer is : D. Endometrial carcinoma Estrogen is given in the management of dysfunctional uterine bleeding, primary hypogonadism, and suppression of ovulation. Choices A, B, and C are all indicators for estrogen treatment.
12. Progestins have been known to cause which of the following: A. Decrease HDL levelB. Increase aspartate transaminaseC. Increase HDL levelsD. Decrease aspartate transaminase 12. A. Decrease HDL level Progestins decrease HDL levels, which may predispose the patient to increased cardiac risk.
13. A constant dose of estrogen with varying doses of progestin are found in: A. monophasic pillsB. Depo-ProveraC. triphasic pillsD. biphasic pills 13. The correct answer is : D. biphasic pills Choice A is incorrect because monophasic pills have a constant dose of estrogen and progestin throughout the month. Choice B is incorrect because Depo-Provera is a progestin product only. Choice C is incorrect because triphasic pills may have variations in estrogen as well as progestin levels.
14. Androgens are medically indicated in the management of all of the following except: A. HirsutismB. HypogonadismC. Metabolic stimulation in prepubertal boysD. Body building 14. The correct answer is : D. Body building Androgens can be dangerous drugs and are medically indicated only in severe conditions, such as female hirsutism or male hypogonadism, and as metabolic stimulator.
15. A relative contraindication to therapy with androgens is: A. Hepatic failureB. PregnancyC. Prostate cancerD. Hypogonadism 15. The correct answer is : A. Hepatic failure Hepatic failure is considered a relative contraindication because antiandrogens have been known to cause hepatic toxicity. Choice B is incorrect because pregnancy is considered an absolute contraindication. Prostate cancer is an indication for antiandrogen administration. Hypogonadism would not be considered a contraindication, but it most certainly is not an indication for therapy.
16. Which of the following is a contraindication for use of oxytocin to induce labor? A. Missed abortionB. Placenta previaC. HyperbilirubinemiaD. Pregnancy past due date 16. The correct answer is : B. Placenta previa Use of oxytocin is contraindicated in the presence of placenta previa. Labor induction in this condition could be fatal to the fetus. Placenta previa is an indication for cesarean section.
17. During labor induction with oxytocin, the nurse knows that relaxation of vascular smooth muscle can cause: A. Hypertension, premature atrial contractionsB. Hyperglycemia, premature ventricular contractionsC. Hyperglycemia, hypertensionD. Hypotension and flushing 17. The correct answer is : D. Hypotension and flushing Relaxation of vascular smooth muscle will cause vasodilation leading to hypotension and flushing.
18. Julia is a mother who is receiving oxytocin therapy. The nurse must continuously evaluate: A. Membrane integrityB. Uterine contractionsC. Cervical dilationD. Cervical effacement 18. The correct answer is : B. Uterine contractions A patient receiving oxytocin therapy requires continuous monitoring of maternal vital signs, fluid intake and output, electronic fetal monitoring, and uterine contractions.
19. Which drug is used to manage preterm labor by causing smooth muscle relaxation? A. oxytocinB. prostaglandinC. ritodrineD. estrogen 19. The correct answer is : C. ritodrine Ritodrine is used to arrest uterine contractions in preterm labor. Oxytocin is used to stimulate labor.
20. Which of the following drugs poses the greatest threat to an insulin-dependent diabetic who is pregnant? A. ritodrine hydrochlorideB. oxytocinC. prostaglandinD. Ergotrate 20. The correct answer is : A. ritodrine hydrochloride The only drug that poses a threat to diabetics who are pregnant is ritodrine.
8. A patient 8. The correct answer is :
8. A patient 8. The correct answer is :
8. A patient 8. The correct answer is :
8. A patient 8. The correct answer is :