1 / 52

Tintinalli Chapters 275 -279

Tintinalli Chapters 275 -279. Keith Tucker. 1. The most common long bone fracture is?. Femur Humerus Tibia Fibula Radius. 0. 2. Which tibial plateau is fractured most?. Lateral Medial. 0.

russellm
Download Presentation

Tintinalli Chapters 275 -279

An Image/Link below is provided (as is) to download presentation Download Policy: Content on the Website is provided to you AS IS for your information and personal use and may not be sold / licensed / shared on other websites without getting consent from its author. Content is provided to you AS IS for your information and personal use only. Download presentation by click this link. While downloading, if for some reason you are not able to download a presentation, the publisher may have deleted the file from their server. During download, if you can't get a presentation, the file might be deleted by the publisher.

E N D

Presentation Transcript

  1. Tintinalli Chapters 275 -279 Keith Tucker

  2. 1. The most common long bone fracture is? • Femur • Humerus • Tibia • Fibula • Radius 0

  3. 2. Which tibial plateau is fractured most? • Lateral • Medial 0

  4. 3. The _______nerve provide innervation to the first web space, and functions to________ the foot and toes? • Superficial peroneal, dorsiflex • Superficial peroneal, planter flex • Deep peroneal, dorsiflex • Deep peroneal, planter flex 0

  5. 4. The _______nerve provide innervation to the lateral dorsum of the foot, and functions to________ the foot? • Superficial peroneal, evert • Superficial peroneal, invert • Deep peroneal, evert • Deep peroneal, invert 0

  6. 5. The _______nerve provide innervation to the lateral heel, and functions to________ the ankle? • Sural , dorsiflex • Sural , planter flex • Tibial, dorsiflex • Tibial, planter flex 0

  7. 6. Stress fractures of the fibula are usually detected on x-ray • Immediately • Within 1 weeks of the event • 1 to 2 weeks after the event • 2 to 3 weeks after the event • Only on bone scan 0

  8. 7. Open tibial shaft fractures, with extensive soft tissue damage, may have an infection rate of up to? • 5% • 15% • 25% • 35% • 45% 0

  9. 8. Risk factors for achilles tendon rupture include? • Forced plantar flexion, RA, SLE or quinolones • Forced dorsiflexion , RA, SLE or quinolones • PO steroid use, RA, SLE or quinolones • Steroid injection of the tendon, forced dorsiflection, RA, SLE or quinolones 0

  10. 9. Which of the following fracture is likely to be stable? • Fracture of both malleoli • Rupture of both the deltoid and lateral ligaments • Fracture of the lateral malleolus and rupture of the deltoid ligament • All of the above are likely to be unstable 0

  11. 10. Which of the following is least likely to be seen in a Maisonneuve fracture? • Tenderness of the knee • Tenderness of the fibular head • Tenderness of the proximal fibular shaft • Tenderness over the lateral malleolus 0

  12. 11. A drop foot results from injury to what nerve? • Peroneal • Tibial • Sural • Saphenous 10

  13. 12. Which is true of the Ottawa Ankle Rules? • They can be applied to patients of all age group. • They cannot be used if the patient has advance diabetic neuropathy. • They decrease unnecessary ankle X-rays, since, only about 15% of X-rays are positive for fracture after an ankle injury. • They can be used in pregnant patients. 10

  14. Participant Scores

  15. 13. Which side of the ankle is sprained more often? • Lateral • Medial 0

  16. 14. An isolated sprain of the deltoid ligament is rear? • True • False 0

  17. 15. Fibular avulsion fracture are treated as stable ankle sprains if the displaced segment in less then 5 mm in diameter? • True • False 0

  18. 16. Studies have suggested no benefit in the use of NSAID’s in the treatment of ankle fractures? • True • False 0

  19. 17. Avascular necrosis of which of the following bone is most likely seen in dancers presenting with lateral foot pain? • Navicular • Talus • Cuboid 0

  20. 18. Calcaneous fracture are often associated with? • Colles fracture • Patella dislocation • Vertebral fractures • Talus fracture 0

  21. 19. A Boehler angle less than 20 degrees , may indicate a compression fracture of the____ ? • Talus • Calcaneous • Cuboid • Navicular 0

  22. 20. A fracture to the base of the ____ metacarpal is pathognomonic for disruption of the Lisfranc ligament complex? • First • Second • Third • Fourth 0

  23. 21. Up to what percentage of injury to the Lisfranc joint are missed in the ED? • 10% • 20% • 30% • 40% 0

  24. 22. A pseudo Jones fracture describes? • Fracture of the neck of the 5th metatarsal • Fracture of the midshaft of the 5th metatarsal • Fracture of the base of the 5th metatarsal, 10 to 20 mm distal to the proximal part of the metatarsal • Fracture of the tuberosity at the base of the 5th metatarsal 0

  25. 23. Add a ______ to a 1st generation cephalosporin for grossly contaminated open foot fractures? • Aminoglycoside • Macrolide • Qinnolone • Tetracycline 0

  26. 24. A patient with this type of metatarsal fracture can be referred to the orthopedist within 1 week? • First metatarsal fracture • Displaced metatarsal shaft fracture • True Jones fracture • Pediatric metatarsal fracture 0

  27. Participant Scores

  28. 25. Which of the following injuries do not need immediate consultation to the orthopedist? • Open fractures • Fracture dislocations • Talar neck fractures • Lisfranc fractures • Ruptured plantar fascia 0

  29. 26. Normal tissue pressure is usually less than ____ and capillary blood flow is usually compromised at pressures greater than____? • 10mmHg, 20,mmHg • 10mmHg, 30 mmHg • 10mmHg, 40mmHg • 10mmHg, 50mmHg 0

  30. 27. What structure are most sensitive to elevated compartment pressures? • Arteries • Muscles • Nerves • Veins 0

  31. 28. The pain that is out of proportion to physical exam finding, seen in compartment syndrome, refers to bone pain? • True • False 0

  32. 29. How many compartments are contained within the upper arm, forearm and hand respectively? • 2, 2, 2 • 2, 2, 3 • 2, 2, 4 • 2, 2, 5 0

  33. 30. How many compartments are contained within the gluteal area, thigh and leg respectively? • 3, 3, 2 • 3, 3, 3 • 3, 3, 4 • 3, 3, 5 0

  34. 31. Of the 5 P of compartment syndrome, what two symptoms are seen early? • Pain and pallor • Pain and paresthesia • Pain and pulselessness • Pain and paralysis 0

  35. 32. What compartment pressures are generally considered grounds for emergent fasciotomy? • 20 to 30mmHg • 30 to 40mmHg • 40 to 50mmHg • 50 to 60mmHg 0

  36. 33. For patients with recurrent episodes of rhabdomyolysis, what condition should be suspect? • Muscle trauma or inflammation • Strenuous physical activities • Alcohol or drug abuse • Heat-related illness • Inherited metabolic disorders 0

  37. 34. The most frequently reported viral and bacterial causes of rhabdomyolysis are? • Coxackie and strep pneumonia • Influenza and legionella • Ebstein-Barr and strep pyogenes • Herpes zoster and MRSA 0

  38. 35. The degree of creatinine kinase elevation correlates with the amount of muscle injury and the severity of illness? • True • False 0

More Related