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Pharmacology

Pharmacology. CRT 11? = 8% RRT 6?.

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Pharmacology

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  1. Pharmacology CRT 11? = 8% RRT 6?

  2. A 30-year-old patient presents to the asthma clinic with a 2-week history of daily wheezing and nightly awakenings with shortness of breath. The patient is using Primatene Mist five times daily and fluticasone propionate (Flovent) 110 MDI occassionally at night. How should the therapist counsel the patient regarding disease management?    • Discontinue Primatene Mist • Use fluticasone propionate (Flovent) 110 MDI, 2 puffs twice daily. • Use salmeterol (Serevent) dry powder inhaler, 1 dose twice daily. • Use fluticasone propionate/salmeterol (Advair) 100/50 dry powder inhaler, one dose daily. • I, II, and III only • I, II, and IV only • I, III, and IV only • II, III, and IV only

  3. A 30-year-old patient presents to the asthma clinic with a 2-week history of daily wheezing and nightly awakenings with shortness of breath. The patient is using Primatene Mist five times daily and fluticasone propionate (Flovent) 110 MDI occassionally at night. How should the therapist counsel the patient regarding disease management?    • Discontinue Primatene Mist • Use fluticasone propionate (Flovent) 110 MDI, 2 puffs twice daily. • Use salmeterol (Serevent) dry powder inhaler, 1 dose twice daily. • Use fluticasone propionate/salmeterol (Advair) 100/50 dry powder inhaler, one dose daily. • I, II, and III only • I, II, and IV only • I, III, and IV only • II, III, and IV only

  4. Which of the following is associated with the administration of aerosolized pentamidine isethionate (NebuPent)? • tachycardia • bradycardia • bronchospasm • hypotension

  5. Which of the following is associated with the administration of aerosolized pentamidine isethionate (NebuPent)? • tachycardia • bradycardia • bronchospasm • hypotension

  6. An increase in a patient's heart rate during aerosolized bronchodilator therapy is primarily a result of which of the following drug effects? • alpha only • beta 1 only • beta 2 only • beta 1 and beta 2 only

  7. An increase in a patient's heart rate during aerosolized bronchodilator therapy is primarily a result of which of the following drug effects? • alpha only • beta 1 only • beta 2 only • beta 1 and beta 2 only

  8. Which of the following devices are most commonly used to deliver aerosols by the inhalation route? • Dry powder inhaler • II. Metered dose inhaler • III. Small-volume nebulizer • Slip-stream nebulizer • A. I and III • B. II and IV • C. I, II, and III • D. I, II, III, and IV

  9. Which of the following devices are most commonly used to deliver aerosols by the inhalation route? • Dry powder inhaler • II. Metered dose inhaler • III. Small-volume nebulizer • Slip-stream nebulizer • A. I and III • B. II and IV • C. I, II, and III • D. I, II, III, and IV

  10. Which of the following are the largest single group of drugs among aerosolized agents used for inhalation? A. Inhaled corticosteroids B. Adrenergic bronchodilators C. Mucus-controlling agents D. Anticholinergic bronchodilators

  11. Which of the following are the largest single group of drugs among aerosolized agents used for inhalation? A. Inhaled corticosteroids B. Adrenergic bronchodilators C. Mucus-controlling agents D. Anticholinergic bronchodilators

  12. Which of the following is an indication for use of an adrenergic bronchodilator? • Treatment of excessive, viscous mucus secretions • B. Antiinflammatory treatment of mild to moderate persistent asthma • C.Treatment of reversible airflow obstruction • D.Prophylactic management of asthma

  13. Which of the following is an indication for use of an adrenergic bronchodilator? • Treatment of excessive, viscous mucus secretions • B. Antiinflammatory treatment of mild to moderate persistent asthma • C.Treatment of reversible airflow obstruction • D.Prophylactic management of asthma

  14. Proventil and Ventolin are brand names for which of the following beta-adrenergic bronchodilators? A. Albuterol B. Isoetharine C. Terbutaline D. Metaproterenol

  15. Proventil and Ventolin are brand names for which of the following beta-adrenergic bronchodilators? A. Albuterol B. Isoetharine C. Terbutaline D. Metaproterenol

  16. An MDI of Salmeterol delivers which of the following? A. 131 mg/puff B. 90 mg/puff C. 65 mg/puff D. 25 mg/puff

  17. An MDI of Salmeterol delivers which of the following? A. 131 mg/puff B. 90 mg/puff C. 65 mg/puff D. 25 mg/puff

  18. Which of the following short-acting catecholamines are used for their strong alpha1 vasoconstricting effects to reduce swelling in the nose and larynx and to control bleeding during bronchoscopic biopsy? A. Isoproterenol B. Isoetharine C. Dobutamine D. Racemic epinephrine

  19. Which of the following short-acting catecholamines are used for their strong alpha1 vasoconstricting effects to reduce swelling in the nose and larynx and to control bleeding during bronchoscopic biopsy? A. Isoproterenol B. Isoetharine C. Dobutamine D. Racemic epinephrine

  20. Which of the following are side effects of newer, more beta2-selective bronchodilators? A. Tremor B. Insomnia C. Nervousness D. All the above

  21. Which of the following are side effects of newer, more beta2-selective bronchodilators? A. Tremor B. Insomnia C. Nervousness D. All the above

  22. What are some potential adverse effects with use of adrenergic bronchodilators? • I. Hypokalemia • II. Dizziness • III. Worsening ventilation/perfusion ratio (V/Q) • Bradycardia • A. I and IV only • B. II and III only • C. I, II, and III • D. I, II, III, and IV

  23. What are some potential adverse effects with use of adrenergic bronchodilators? • I. Hypokalemia • II. Dizziness • III. Worsening ventilation/perfusion ratio (V/Q) • Bradycardia • A. I and IV only • B. II and III only • C. I, II, and III • D. I, II, III, and IV

  24. Which of the following are assessment features for evaluating patient response to bronchodilator therapy? • Reversibility of airflow obstruction • II. Changes in flow rates using a peak flow meter or portable spirometry • III. Vital-sign changes (e.g., blood pressure, pulse rate) • IV. Changes in ventilation and oxygenation by arterial blood gas or pulse oximeter • The patient's subjective reaction to treatment • A. II, III, and IV • B. II, III, and V • C. I, II, III, and V • D. I, II, III, IV, and V

  25. Which of the following are assessment features for evaluating patient response to bronchodilator therapy? • Reversibility of airflow obstruction • II. Changes in flow rates using a peak flow meter or portable spirometry • III. Vital-sign changes (e.g., blood pressure, pulse rate) • IV. Changes in ventilation and oxygenation by arterial blood gas or pulse oximeter • The patient's subjective reaction to treatment • A. II, III, and IV • B. II, III, and V • C. I, II, III, and V • D. I, II, III, IV, and V

  26. What amount of Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) is delivered by MDI? A. 10 mg/puff B. 15 mg/puff C. 18 mg/puff D. 90 mg/puff

  27. What amount of Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) is delivered by MDI? A. 10 mg/puff B. 15 mg/puff C. 18 mg/puff D. 90 mg/puff

  28. What is the dosage for Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)? A. 2 puffs qid B. 2 puffs tid C. 2 puffs bid D. 2 puffs q12h

  29. What is the dosage for Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)? A. 2 puffs qid B. 2 puffs tid C. 2 puffs bid D. 2 puffs q12h

  30. What are some common side effects seen with Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)? A. Tachycardia B. Blood pressure increase C. Cough and dry mouth D. Tolerance

  31. What are some common side effects seen with Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)? A. Tachycardia B. Blood pressure increase C. Cough and dry mouth D. Tolerance

  32. Which of the following are indications for use of acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)? • Treatment of acetaminophen overdose • II. Treatment of excessive, viscous mucus secretions • III. Treatment of aspirin overdose • Treatment of purulent mucus secretions by breaking up DNA • A. I and II only • B. II and IV only • C. I, II, and III • D. I, II, III, and IV

  33. Which of the following are indications for use of acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)? • Treatment of acetaminophen overdose • II. Treatment of excessive, viscous mucus secretions • III. Treatment of aspirin overdose • Treatment of purulent mucus secretions by breaking up DNA • A. I and II only • B. II and IV only • C. I, II, and III • D. I, II, III, and IV

  34. Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) lowers the viscosity of mucus by means of which of the following? • Breaking down DNA • B. Increasing the osmolarity of the mucus and pulling water into it • C.Changing the pH of the mucus, causing it to break down • D.Substituting its sulfhydryl group for disulfide bonds and breaking a portion of the bond forming the gel structure

  35. Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) lowers the viscosity of mucus by means of which of the following? • Breaking down DNA • B. Increasing the osmolarity of the mucus and pulling water into it • C.Changing the pH of the mucus, causing it to break down • D.Substituting its sulfhydryl group for disulfide bonds and breaking a portion of the bond forming the gel structure

  36. Which of the following should be assessed when delivering acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)? • Presence of adverse effects that require treatment to be discontinued • II. Monitoring peak flow changes • III. Monitoring color, consistency, and amount of sputum • IV. Monitoring for presence of hydrogen sulfide (a rotten egg odor), which means that the acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) is no longer active • A. I and III only • B. I, II, and III • C. II, III, and IV • D. I, II, III, and IV

  37. Which of the following should be assessed when delivering acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)? • Presence of adverse effects that require treatment to be discontinued • II. Monitoring peak flow changes • III. Monitoring color, consistency, and amount of sputum • IV. Monitoring for presence of hydrogen sulfide (a rotten egg odor), which means that the acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) is no longer active • A. I and III only • B. I, II, and III • C. II, III, and IV • D. I, II, III, and IV

  38. Which of the following are true regarding glucocorticoids? • They work through activation of intracellular receptors. • II. Relief is immediate. • III. Daily compliance is essential to controlling inflammation in asthma. • IV. Taken intranasally they can control allergic and nonallergic rhinitis. • A. I, II, and III • B. I, III, and IV • C. II, III, and IV • D. I, II, III, and IV

  39. Which of the following are true regarding glucocorticoids? • They work through activation of intracellular receptors. • II. Relief is immediate. • III. Daily compliance is essential to controlling inflammation in asthma. • IV. Taken intranasally they can control allergic and nonallergic rhinitis. • A. I, II, and III • B. I, III, and IV • C. II, III, and IV • D. I, II, III, and IV

  40. How does cromolyn sodium work? • Producing antiinflammatory enzymes within cells • B. Inhibiting degranulation of mast cells • C.Preventing arachidonic acid formation from activation of mast cell membrane phospholipase A2 • D.Leukotriene inhibition

  41. How does cromolyn sodium work? • Producing antiinflammatory enzymes within cells • B. Inhibiting degranulation of mast cells • C.Preventing arachidonic acid formation from activation of mast cell membrane phospholipase A2 • D.Leukotriene inhibition

  42. Which of the following is true about the use of Ribavirin? • It is used as an antiviral agent against influenza. • II. It is delivered by a SPAG unit. • III. Adverse effects include skin rash, conjunctivitis, and eyelid erythema. • It can occlude endotracheal-tube and ventilator exhalation valves. • A. I, and II only • B. III and IV only • C. II, III, and IV • D. I, II, III, and IV

  43. Which of the following is true about the use of Ribavirin? • It is used as an antiviral agent against influenza. • II. It is delivered by a SPAG unit. • III. Adverse effects include skin rash, conjunctivitis, and eyelid erythema. • It can occlude endotracheal-tube and ventilator exhalation valves. • A. I, and II only • B. III and IV only • C. II, III, and IV • D. I, II, III, and IV

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