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BIOL 203 Exam 4 Review Chapters 52 and 56 (sections 1 & 2). 2) Which of the following statements about ecology is incorrect ? A) Ecologists may study populations and communities of organisms. B) Ecological studies may involve the use of models and computers.
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BIOL 203 Exam 4 Review Chapters 52 and 56 (sections 1 & 2) 2) Which of the following statements about ecology is incorrect? A) Ecologists may study populations and communities of organisms. B) Ecological studies may involve the use of models and computers. C) Ecology is a discipline that is independent from natural selection and evolutionary history. D) Ecology spans increasingly comprehensive levels of organization, from individuals to ecosystems. E) Ecology is the study of the interactions between biotic and abiotic aspects of the environment. 3) Which of the following levels of organization is arranged in the correct sequence from most to least inclusive? A) community, ecosystem, individual, population B) ecosystem, community, population, individual C) population, ecosystem, individual, community D) individual, population, community, ecosystem E) individual, community, population, ecosystem 4) Ecology as a discipline directly deals with all of the following levels of biological organization except A) population. B) cellular. C) organismal. D) ecosystem. E) community. 12) Which of the following are important biotic factors that can affect the structure and organization of biological communities? A) precipitation, wind B) nutrient availability, soil pH C) predation, competition D) temperature, water E) light intensity, seasonality
15) In mountainous areas of western North America, north-facing slopes would be expected to A) receive more sunlight than similar southern exposures B) be warmer and drier than comparable southern exposed slopes C) consistently steeper than southern exposures D) support biological communities similar to those found lower elevations on similar south-facing slopes. E) support biological communities similar to those found at higher elevations on similar south-facing slopes. 17) Deserts typically occur in a band at 30 degrees north and south latitude because A) descending air masses tend to be cool and dry. B) trade winds have a little moisture. C) water is heavier than air and is not carried far over land. D) ascending air tends to be moist. E) these locations get the most intense solar radiation of any location on Earth 18) Turnover of water in temperate lakes during the spring and fall is made possible by which of the following? A) warm, less dense water layered at the top B) cold, more dense water layered at the bottom C) a distinct thermocline between less dense warm water and cold, dense water. D) the density of water changes as seasonal temperatures change. E) currents generated by nektonic animals 19) In temperate lakes, the surface water is replenished with nutrients during turnovers that occur in the A) autumn and spring. B) autumn and winter. C) spring and summer. D) summer and winter. E) summer and autumn.
22) Which of the following causes Earth's seasons? A) global air circulation B) global wind patterns C) ocean currents D) changes in Earth's distance from the sun E) the tilt of Earth's axis 25) The main reason polar regions are cooler than the equator is because A) there is more ice at the poles. B) sunlight strikes the poles at an lower angle. C) the poles are farther from the sun. D) the poles have a thicker atmosphere. E) the poles are permanently tilted away from the sun. 26) Which of the following environmental features might influence microclimates? A) a discarded soft-drink can B) a tree C) a fallen log D) a stone E) all of the above 37) Which marine zone would have the lowest rates of primary productivity (photosynthesis)? A) pelagic B) abyssal C) neritic D) continental shelf E) intertidal
Use the following diagram from the text showing the spread of the cattle egret, Bulbulcus ibis, since its arrival in the New World, to answer the following question. 31) How would an ecologist likely explain the expansion of the cattle egret? A) The areas to which the cattle egret has expanded have no cattle egret parasites. B) Climatic factors, such as temperature and precipitation provide suitable habitat for cattle egrets. C) There are no natural predators for cattle egrets in the New World, so they continue to expand their range. D) A habitat left unoccupied by native herons and egrets met the biotic and abiotic requirements of the cattle egret transplants and their descendants. E) The first egrets to colonize South America evolved into a new species capable of competing with the native species of herons and egrets. 39) Where would an ecologist find the most phytoplankton in a lake? A) profundal zone B) benthic zone C) photic zone D) oligotrophic zone E) aphotic zone
44) Coral animals A) are a diverse group of cnidarians often forming mutualistic symbiotic relationships with dinoflagellate algae. B) are predominantly photosynthetic, multicellular algae. C) can tolerate low oxygen and nutrient levels, and varying levels of salinity. D) can only survive in tropical waters 30oC and above. E) build coral reefs by glueing sand particles together. 49) In the development of terrestrial biomes, which factor is most dependent on all the others? A) the species of colonizing animals B) prevailing temperature C) prevailing rainfall D) mineral nutrient availability E) soil structure 50) An area in which different terrestrial biomes grade into each other is known as a(n) A) littoral zone. B) vertically stratified canopy. C) ecotone. D) abyssal zone. E) cline. 51) Two plant species live in the same biome but on different continents. Although the two species are not at all closely related, they may appear quite similar as a result of A) parallel evolution. B) convergent evolution. C) allopatric speciation. D) introgression. E) gene flow.
56) Tropical grasslands with scattered trees are also known as A) taigas. B) tundras. C) savannas. D) chaparrals. E) temperate plains. 57) Which type of biome would most likely occur in a climate with mild, rainy winters and hot, dry summers? A) desert B) taiga C) temperate grassland D) chaparral E) savanna 59) The growing season would generally be shortest in which of the following biomes? A) savanna B) temperate broadleaf forest C) temperate grassland D) tropical rain forest E) coniferous forest 60) Trees are not usually found in the tundra biome because of A) insufficient annual precipitation. B) acidic soils. C) extreme winter temperatures. D) overbrowsing by musk ox and caribou. E) permafrost.
5) Which lake zone would be absent in a very shallow lake? A) benthic zone B) aphotic zone C) pelagic zone D) littoral zone E) limnetic zone 6) Which of the following is true with respect to oligotrophic lakes and eutrophic lakes? A) Oligotrophic lakes are more subject to oxygen depletion. B) Rates of photosynthesis are lower in eutrophic lakes. C) Eutrophic lake water contains lower concentrations of nutrients. D) Eutrophic lakes are richer in nutrients. E) Sediments in oligotrophic lakes contain larger amounts of decomposable organic matter. 7) Which of the following is characteristic of most terrestrial biomes? A) annual average rainfall in excess of 250 cm B) a distribution predicted almost entirely by rock and soil patterns C) clear boundaries between adjacent biomes D) vegetation demonstrating stratification E) cold winter months 9) Suppose the number of bird species is determined mainly by the number of vertical strata found in the environment. If so, in which of the following biomes would you find the greatest number of bird species? A) tropical rain forest B) savanna C) desert D) temperate broadleaf forest E) temperate grassland
2) Estimates of current rates of extinction A) indicate that we have reached a state of stable equilibrium in which speciation and extinction rates are approximately equal. B) suggest that one-half of all animal and plant species may be gone by the year 2100. C) indicate that rates may be greater than the mass extinctions at the close of the Cretaceous period. D) indicate that only 1% of all of the species that have ever lived on Earth are still alive. E) suggest that rates of extinction have decreased globally. 3) Extinction is a natural phenomenon. It is estimated that 99% of all species that ever lived are now extinct. Why then do we say that we are now in a biodiversity crisis? A) Humans are ethically responsible for protecting endangered species. B) Scientists have finally identified most of the species on Earth and are thus able to quantify the number of species becoming extinct. C) The current rate of extinction is high and human activities threaten biodiversity at all levels. D) Humans have greater medical needs than at any other time in history, and many potential medicinal compounds are being lost as plant species become extinct. E) Most biodiversity hot spots have been destroyed by recent ecological disasters. 5) Which of the following terms includes all of the others? A) species diversity B) biodiversity C) genetic diversity D) ecosystem diversity E) species richness 7) According to the U.S. Endangered Species Act (ESA), the difference between an endangered species and a threatened one is that A) an endangered species is closer to extinction. B) a threatened species is closer to extinction. C) threatened species are endangered species outside the U.S. borders. D) endangered species are mainly tropical. E) only endangered species are vertebrates.
10) What term did E. O. Wilson coin for our innate appreciation of wild environments and living organisms? A) bioremediation B) bioethics C) biophilia D) biophobia E) landscape ecology 12) The most serious consequence of a loss in ecosystem biodiversity would be the A) increase in global warming and thinning of the ozone layer. B) loss of ecosystem services on which people depend. C) increase in the abundance and diversity of edge-adapted species. D) loss of source of genetic diversity to preserve endangered species. E) loss of species for "bioprospecting." 13) Which of the following is the most direct threat to biodiversity? A) increased levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide B) the depletion of the ozone layer C) overexploitation of species D) habitat destruction E) zoned reserves 15) How is habitat fragmentation related to biodiversity loss? A) Less carbon dioxide is absorbed by plants in fragmented habitats. B) In fragmented habitats, more soil erosion takes place. C) Populations of organisms in fragments are smaller and, thus, more susceptible to extinction. D) Animals are forced out of smaller habitat fragments. E) Fragments generate silt that negatively affect sensitive river and stream organisms.
19) The greatest cause of the biodiversity crisis that includes all of the others is A) pollution. B) global warming. C) habitat destruction. D) introduced species. E) overpopulation of humans. 23) Which of the following would be research in which a conservation biologist would be involved? A) reestablishing whooping cranes in their former breeding grounds in North Dakota B) studying species diversity and interaction in the Florida Everglades, past and present C) population ecology of grizzly bears in Yellowstone National Park D) the effects of hunting on white-tailed deer in Vermont E) the effect of protection programs on the recovery of the North Atlantic cod fishery 25) Which of the following conditions is the most likely indicator of a population in an extinction vortex? A) The population is geographically divided into smaller populations. B) The species is found only in small pockets of its former range C) The effective population size of the species falls below 500. D) Genetic measurements indicate a continuing loss of genetic variation. E) The population is no longer connected by corridors. 27) One chief area of concern among biologists who use the small-population approach is A) intraspecific competition. B) sexual selection. C) genetic diversity. D) runaway selection. E) both A and D
29) Review the formula for effective population size. Imagine a population of 1,000 small rodents. Of these, 300 are breeding females, 300 are breeding males, and 400 are nonbreeding juveniles. What is the effective population size? A) 1,000 B) 1,200 C) 600 D) 400 E) 300 37) The primary difference between the small-population approach (S-PA) and the declining-population approach (D-PA) to biodiversity recovery is A) S-PA is interested in bolstering the genetic diversity of a threatened population rather than the environmental factors that caused the population's decline. B) S-PA kicks in for conservation biologists when population numbers fall below 500. C) D-PA would likely involve the bringing together of individuals from scattered small populations to interbreed to promote genetic diversity. D) S-PA would investigate and eliminate all of the human impacts on the habitat of the species being studied for recovery. E) D-PA would use recently collected population data to calculate an extinction vortex. 34) If we say a species is endemic to a certain area, we mean that A) it is found only in one particular area of the world. B) it has been introduced to that area. C) it is endangered in that area. D) it is threatened in that area. E) it used to live there but no longer does. 35) What is the Extinction Vortex?
___________________consists of patterns on the global, regional, and local level • ___________________consists of very fine patterns, such as those encountered by the community of organisms underneath a fallen log Label the air currents In both diagrams.
Label and explain the air flows. What is a Climograph? What does this climograph tell us?
Name all of the Terrestrial Biomes and give 2 characteristics for each. Name all of the Aquatic Biomes and give 2 characteristics for each.
Explain the seasonal turnovers in lake waters for each season. Summer Winter Spring Autumn 22º 4º 0º 4º 20º 4º 2º 4º 18º 4º 4º 4º 8º 4º 4º 4º 6º 4º 4º 4º 5º 4ºC 4ºC 4ºC 4ºC Thermocline
_____________ lakes are nutrient-poor and generally oxygen-rich. _____________ lakes are nutrient-rich and often depleted of oxygen if ice covered in winter. _____________ ecology applies ecological principles to return degraded ecosystems to conditions as similar as possible to their natural state. Biodiversity has three main components: 1) 2) 3) _____________ diversity comprises genetic variation within a population and between populations. Human ___________allows us to recognize the value of biodiversity for its own sake. ______________________encompass all the processes through which natural ecosystems and their species help sustain human life. Some examples of ecosystem servicesare: - - - ________________is human harvesting of wild plants or animals at rates exceeding the ability of populations of those species to rebound. _________ analysis can help conservation biologists to identify the source of illegally obtained animal products. The key factor driving the extinction vortex is ___________________________necessary to enable evolutionary responses to environmental change. A meaningful estimate of MVP requires determining the _____________________, which is based on the population’s breeding potential. Effective population size Ne is estimated by: where Nf and Nm are the number of ___________ and the number of _________, respectively, that breed successfully.
Explain this diagram. Why is species X absent from an area? Yes Area inaccessible or insufficient time Yes Habitat selection Does dispersal limit its distribution? Yes Predation, parasitism, competition, disease Chemical factors Does behavior limit its distribution? No Do biotic factors (other species) limit its distribution? Water Oxygen Salinity pH Soil nutrients, etc. No Do abiotic factors limit its distribution? No Temperature Light Soil structure Fire Moisture, etc. Physical factors Label and Explain the extinction vortex diagram.